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someone was telling me that in Daniel Chapter 6 verse 12 where it mentions the "Son of Man", that this is obviously Jesus and that this is a clear case of where you can see the Trinity in the OT. Jesus also calls himself the "Son of Man" many times in the NT. So now I'm a bit confused because if you go over to Numbers 23:19 it says that God is not a man nor a son of man. We say Jesus is God and man , how can we explain this problem?

2007-12-05 12:17:38 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

sorry, wrong chapther, I meant Chapter 7

2007-12-05 12:26:10 · update #1

15 answers

Did Jesus drive a Ford ?

2007-12-05 12:33:37 · answer #1 · answered by klby 6 · 0 2

It is chapter 7:13

Chapter 7 of Daniel, which tells about these world powers, goes on to describe something even more astonishing, a major change in the way the earth is ruled! Failing human rulerships are to end and be replaced by a righteous heavenly one.

Daniel’s vision permitted him to see the magnificent heavenly throne of “the Ancient of Days,” Jehovah God. Brought before this One was “someone like a son of man”, the resurrected Jesus Christ. Daniel relates: “To him there were given rulership and dignity and kingdom, that the peoples, national groups and languages should all serve even him. His rulership is an indefinitely lasting rulership that will not pass away, and his kingdom [unlike failing human kingdoms] one that will not be brought to ruin.”

Not Divine on Earth

The Scriptures make it clear that Jesus was entirely human from his birth until his death. John did not say that the Word was merely clothed with flesh. He “became flesh” and was not part flesh and part God. If Jesus had been human and divine at the same time, it could not have been said that he had been “made a little lower than angels.” Hebrews 2:9

If Jesus had been both God and man when on the earth, why did he repeatedly pray to Jehovah? Paul wrote: “In the days of his flesh Christ offered up supplications and also petitions to the One who was able to save him out of death, with strong outcries and tears, and he was favorably heard for his godly fear.”

That Jesus was not partly a spirit when on the earth is proved by Peter’s statement that Christ was “put to death in the flesh, but, made alive in the spirit.” (1 Peter 3:18) Only because Jesus was wholly human could he have experienced what imperfect people experience and thus become a sympathetic high priest. Wrote Paul: “We have as high priest, not one who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who has been tested in all respects like ourselves, but without sin.”, Hebrews 4:15.

As “the Lamb of God that takes away the sin of the world,” Jesus “gave himself a corresponding ransom for all.” In that way, Jesus bought back exactly what Adam had lost, perfect, eternal human life. Since God’s justice required ‘soul for soul,’ Jesus thus had to be what Adam was originally, a perfect human, not a God-man.

2007-12-05 13:00:14 · answer #2 · answered by BJ 7 · 0 0

Jesus is also called the Son of David Matthew9:27;
Son of the Father, 2 John 3;
Son of God; Matthew 4:3; 8:29;
Son of Man Matthew 8:20;
Son of Mary, Mark6:3;
Son of the Most High, Luke 1:32

your not confused, we need to cross- reference scripture to get the true and ful meaning [ numbers 23:19

2007-12-05 12:56:28 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

the term Son of Man disproves the trinity, not supports it.

(Daniel 7:13) 13 “I kept on beholding in the visions of the night, and, see there! with the clouds of the heavens someone like a son of man happened to be coming; and to the Ancient of Days he gained access, and they brought him up close even before that One.

Jesus and Jehovah, two separate individuals.

(Daniel 8:16-17) . . .” 17 So he came beside where I was standing, but when he came I got terrified so that I fell upon my face. And he proceeded to say to me: “Understand, O son of man, that the vision is for the time of [the] end.”

Here Daniel is called son of man, Daniel is not equal to Jehovah.

.

2007-12-08 09:39:51 · answer #4 · answered by TeeM 7 · 0 0

I have looked at this myself, and here is my interpretation.

Son of Man means Jesus was saying he was an ordinary man to the Pharises, so 2 possibilties become clear:

1. He is lying to save his skin, therefore he could not be anything more than a man, because he bore false witness, which is a sin.

2. He is telling the truth, and he is an ordinary man.

I really think he was telling the truth, and Jesus was as much the son of God as you or I. this would also mean that anything he actually did, we can do, including not sinning. Just a thought.

2007-12-05 12:26:40 · answer #5 · answered by Jim! 5 · 1 1

Even if this were worth arguing, the text doesn't say what you claim:

11. And Daniel, when he knew that a writ had been inscribed, came to his house, where there were open windows in his upper chamber, opposite Jerusalem, and three times a day he kneeled on his knees and prayed and offered thanks before his God just as he had done prior to this.
12. Then these men searched and found Daniel begging and supplicating before his God.
13. Then they drew near and said before the king concerning the king's decree, "Did you not issue a decree that any person who begs from any god or man for thirty days except from you, O king, shall be cast into the pit of the lions?" The king replied and said, "The thing is true as the law of Media and Persia, which shall not be repealed."

2007-12-05 12:26:01 · answer #6 · answered by rosends 7 · 0 1

You're having a problem with the whole trinity issue. That was God. Of course God lived in the flesh too as Jesus Christ. And then of course there is Jesus being baptized with water and the Holy Spirit by John the Baptist. And the baptist sees the Holy Spirit coming down on Jesus like a dove. And then he hears God the Fathers' voice saying "This is my beloved son in whom I am well pleased".

The best way to simplify this mystery is that God had a plan of salvation before He created the earth and the universe. He had to have a perfect sinless body to be the perfect sacrafice for sin. And it required God to manifest himself in most impossible ways that are hard for man to understand. But is one. Yet he can manifest himself this way as the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. With man this is impossible. But with God all things are possible.

Always remember that when Jesus was here he was our example as believers as to how one man totally devoted to God would always depend on God and not on himself. That is why Jesus always spoke the words of God and performed the deeds of God. In this way no man would get the glory. Only God in heaven would.

The Holy Spirits job is to give us wisdom and power in our lives and to give spiritual insight into the scriptures. Jesus's life was a manifestation of a man who was empowered by the Holy Spirit to preach God's word to man and to do miracles.

Now to answer your question that was God. If you look back thorugh the perisscope of time you are not wrong if you say it was Jesus. Even so. God is not three God's in one. God is one. There are not three gods in one.

I hope this helps you.

2007-12-05 12:38:38 · answer #7 · answered by Uncle Remus 54 7 · 0 1

Are ya sure you have right verse???

Daniel 6:11 - Daniel 6:12
So they went to the king and spoke to him about his royal decree: “Did you not publish a decree that during the next thirty days anyone who prays to any god or man except to you, O king, would be thrown into the lions’ den?”

The king answered, “The decree stands—in accordance with the laws of the Medes and Persians, which cannot be repealed.”

edit... better check that verse yourself I dont see any of what you refer too... otherwise more than happy to help you out.

2007-12-05 12:25:00 · answer #8 · answered by Looking UP 3 · 0 1

At the time Numbers was written, the incarnation of Christ had not yet occured.

The other thing is the context. The main point here is that God does not lie like men do.

The context is not to explain what God is.

Which is why you need to read the whole chapter if you are going to understand a single verse.

Pastor Art

2007-12-05 12:26:04 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Whatever scrip youre referring to , it's not Daniel 6:12.

And no, Jesus is NOT Jehovah God.

2007-12-05 12:28:40 · answer #10 · answered by Lexpressive 2 · 1 1

Who has gone up to heaven and come down?
Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands?
Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak?
Who has established all the ends of the earth?

What is his name, and the name of his son? Tell me if you know!"
- Proverbs 30:4

2007-12-05 12:23:24 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

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