Well, nothing's any stronger than the foundation it's built upon.
2007-12-05 06:32:55
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answer #1
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answered by Marji 4
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If those publications are based on that translation of the Bible or are used as a method of teaching what is in said Bible then they would most probably be in error also. You cannot get a straight loaf from a dented loaf tin. Of course you and I both know what Bible and publications you are refering to and so the answer has to be a resounding yes, because the Bible in question has been revised to support the doctrines of this particular religious group, and continues to be so. These doctrines are in contradiction to Christianity as they teach a false gospel of Christ. For the poster who commented on the number of different Bibles, yes you are correct that they may be worded differently, however, they ALL teach the same important gospel about Christ. Something can often be explained in a different style or form of language but still convey the same important information, this is the case for most different translations of the Bible, however, the Bible PediC is undoubtedly refering to conveys very different information by the clever and often subtle use of language and grammer.
2007-12-06 02:10:28
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answer #2
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answered by the truth has set me free 4
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Obviously, not necessarily.
1st, can *any* bible translation claim to be error-free? The answer is "Of course not." The source manuscripts we have are copies (of copies of copies, etc.) made by error-prone human hand. These manuscripts differ, in mostly minor ways, between themselves (thus the use of "majority text" by translators). We know that only *1* "version" of each manuscript *might* be error-free. Then there is translation - a certifiably inexact science, again performed by error-prone humans. We can say with authority that *all* bible translations are "in error".
2nd, the only way you could determine if an "extraneous religious publication" was in error (for this reason) would be if
1) an error was *proven* to exist in the bible translation used
2) this specific error was used to support a doctrine within the specific publication
3) this specific doctrine was *proven* to be erroneous itself.
This is simple logic. Here's a demonstrative example:
Nebuchadnezzar, premier scientist of the Babylonian empire, believes that the earth is flat. Bob, another scientist of the time, refers to this item of information (published by Neb) to support his theory that the flat earth rotates about an axis and this accounts for the apparent movement of the sun across the sky. Despite Bob's use of misinformation, it has aided him in arriving at a correct conclusion.
Conclusion:
1) a false premise does *not* necessarily result in a false conclusion
2) a false conclusion can be arrived at without the use of a false premise
3) a single falsehood in a publication does not necessarily result in the situation that conclusions (*any* conclusions) using that publication as a source are false
In other words, the answer is a resounding and conclusive "no".
Jim, http://www.jimpettis.com/wheel/
2007-12-06 01:32:03
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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I assume you're talking about the Book of Mormon and the Watchtower magazine. Those publications are 100% in error because they teach a different gospel than that of Jesus Christ, a practice that is condemned in The Bible in no uncertain terms. Both cults claim to be Christian, but it is merely a smokescreen, no matter what their public relations people say. Satan can be very clever in his deceptions, which accounts for the fact that many people believe that Jehovah's Witnesses and the Latter Day Saints church are Christian churches. They are no more Christian than the buddhists or muslims, although they may be well disguised as such. I'm not being hateful to those who practice those religions, I'm just pointing out facts according to scripture.
2007-12-05 14:39:24
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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When I enter the bookstore I am aghast at the size of the Religion section. A few Bibles than row upon row of books on how to read and understand it. That alone tells me that all translations are in error and that the book should hold little relevance. PEACE!
2007-12-05 14:36:13
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answer #5
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answered by thebigm57 7
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"The kick is off... and it's goooood!"
3 points for that excellent question! I think, yes, the publications would be in error, especially if they are based on flawed bible translations.
God bless.
2007-12-05 15:39:50
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answer #6
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answered by Danny H 6
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Yes. Any group that preaches another gospel is only asking for a severe judgment.
2007-12-05 19:44:51
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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That is a slam dunk conclusion...Just going along with the sports theme
2007-12-05 21:17:11
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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but of course.
He probably spilled whiskey all of the manuscripts he was using so made up what he could not pretend to know.
see link one:
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In the other case gourded to the ears on who knows what drug or spirit. see link two:
2007-12-05 18:29:04
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answer #9
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answered by troll to troll 7
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Makes sense.
2007-12-05 14:33:37
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answer #10
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answered by Open Heart Searchery 7
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