where in the bible does it prophecy the birth of jesus from a virgin?

Question

in the old testament or tanach

J.P. you are right and if you look at proverbs 30:19 which use the same word almah but cant be talking about a virgin

Marji what about proverbs 30:19

why would isaiah mention isaiah 7:16 if isaiah was was 400 years before jesus

suzzane what kind of sign is it to king ahaz as jesus was only born about 400 years later

provebs 30:18 and 4 things i know not 30:19 the eagle in the sky the serpent on a rock a ship in the sea and a man with a young woman this verse means these 4 things leave no sign that they were there the eagle flying leaves no sign when a ship passes it leaves no sign a snake on a rock leaves no sign it was there and a man with a woman leaves no sign now if it meant a virgin that does leave a sign so almah must mean someone who is not a virgin

Answer 1

It doesn't.

However, Christians translate 'almah' as 'virgin' when it does not actually mean as such. It simply means 'young woman'.

There is an actual word in Hebrew for 'virgin' and this word is used when a virgin is refered to, but in the prophecy Christians refer to, "And it shall be given as a sign, he shall be born of 'almah'" the word is almah and not the proper word for a virgin.

Just one of many failures of Christian theology in addressing the prophecies of the coming messiah.

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Suzzanne:

Yes, we have. And notice in your own writing how many times you use qualifiers like, "almost always."

The only way you can interpret almah as 'virgin' absolutely is if you assert that 'virgin' is not implied, but is a direct part of the definition -- which you admitted it was not (even if it is strongly implied).

Further, I have no trust for the qualifications of a man who calls himself a Messianic Jew. Such a man is a liar. One cannot believe Jesus was HaMosiach and still be a Jew.

Messianic Jew is an oxymoron.

Answer 2

Isaiah 7:14.
As you've seen from some of the answers, there's currently some debate over the meaning of the word translated "virgin" there (Hebrew "alma") - but I would point out that, while it can mean either "virgin" or "young woman" - its most common usage was a young woman of marriageable age (virgin by implication, given societal standards at that time) - and there is no place in the Tanach (Old Testament; Hebrew Bible), where almah (or its plural) is used that refers to a young woman who is married or has known a man (seriously - what kind of "sign" would it be for a married woman to get pregnant and have a child?)
I'd also point out that the LLX - the Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures (which predates the Christian era) - DOES use a word that means exclusively "virgin" in this passage.

Edit: Proverbs 30:19 does not necessitate translating "alma" as a young woman who has "known" a man. In fact, a good argument for experience could be made for the understanding of "virgin" here - since the way of a man with a woman is, in general, a LOT more "attentive" prior to sexual union.

Answer 3

Isaiah 7:14

Isaiah told King Ahaz, and the people of Judah, that God himself would give them a sign or miracle. He then recorded it in Isaiah 7:14-16. Isaiah said an "almah," would become pregnant and give birth to a son who would be called Immanuel. "Almah" refers to a virgin, or an unmarried young woman who was expected to be a virgin until after she was married. He also said that both the kings Ahaz feared, would be gone before the baby boy was old enough to chose
between right and wrong.

Answer 4

The most common prophecy mentioned is Isaiah 7:14 "Behold a virgin will conceive and bear a child, and his name shall be called Wonderful Counselor, MIghty God, Everlasting Father and Prince of Peace". That scripture is quoted by Matthew in this gospel as a reference to the virgin birth.

Answer 5

There are several key points to be made here:

1) The text is found at Isaiah 7:14;

2) The word translated as "virgin" in our Bibles is the Hebrew word "almah;"

3) This word does not DIRECTLY mean "virgin." Instead, it means "a young, unmarried woman of marriagable age who has never had sexual relations." Therefore, the interpretation of "virgin" is strongly implied;

4) Hundreds of years before Jesus' birth, 70 Jewish scholars were asked to translate the Tanakh into Greek at the request of Ptolemy II Philadelphus. To assure the best, most accurate translation, these scholars were isolated from each other. After each had finished his translation, they were all compared (none contained any significant deviations). As such, the translation was accepted and is referred to as the Septuagint (meaning 70), or LXX. Without exception, each of these Jewish scholars had translated Isaiah 7:14 using the Greek word "parthenos," which in almost all cases means a women who has not had sexual intercourse. It is therefore obvious that these Hebrew scholars understood this is what Isaiah meant when he used the term.

5) Many Jews offer the counter-argument that the Hebrew text does not use the word for virgin, "betulah." However, Messianic Jewish scholar Dr. Michael Brown (who reads and writes ancient Hebrew) explains why this argument lacks merit:

"Actually, there is no single word in biblical Hebrew that always and only means “virgin” (called in Latin virgo intacta). As for the Hebrew word betulah, while it often refers to a virgin in the Hebrew Scriptures, more often than not it has no reference to virginity but simply means “young woman, maiden.” In fact, out of the fifty times the word betulah occurs in the Tanakh, the NJPSV translates it as “maiden”—rather than “virgin”—thirty-one times! This means that more then three out of very five times that betulah occurs in the Hebrew Bible, it is translated as “maiden” rather then “virgin” by the most widely used Jewish translation of our day. Not only so, but the Stone edition of the Tanakh, reflecting traditional Orthodox scholarship, frequently translates betulah as “maiden” as well. Even in verses where the translation of “virgin” is appropriate for betulah, a qualifying phrase is sometimes added, as in Genesis 24:16: “The maiden (na’arah) was beautiful, a virgin (betulah) whom no man had known” Obviously, if betulah clearly and unequivocally meant “virgin” here, there would be no need to explain that this betulah never had intercourse with a man…. How redundant! What other kind of virgin is there?..."

Isaiah 47:1 adds additional credence to Dr. Brown's position: "Go down, sit in the dust, Virgin [Hebrew: BETULAH] Daughter of Babylon; sit on the ground without a throne, Daughter of the Babylonians. No more will you be called tender or delicate." Several verses later, we read that this "betulah" will lose her husband and her children on the very same day. How can a virgin have a husband AND children? It's just not possible.

6) Remember, Isaiah tells King Ahaz that the entire purpose of the prophecy is to give him "a sign." What kind of sign would it be for a woman to give birth to a boy? THAT HAPPENS EVERY DAY! But for a young woman of marriageable age who has never had sex to give birth to a son -- NOW THAT'S A SIGN, isn't it?!

EDIT To J. P.: Tsk tsk -- you and I have gone over this again and again.

SECOND EDIT: You asked about Proverbs 30:19's use of the word "almah." The writer of Proverbs states that "the way of a man with a maid" is "too wonderful for me."

Verse 19 does not imply that the man and woman have had sex; it only implies that they have engaged in some degree of courtship. In fact, the writer used the Hebrew word "geber," which means "man," not "husband."

THIRD EDIT: Please show me where the Scriptures say that a sign isn't a miraculous one that's obviously from God.

Remember, Isaiah told Ahaz at 7:13 that the sign was given to the "house of David." So you really cannot claim that the sign was for Ahaz only. Ultimately, it was for ALL of the Jewish people, since the House of David was commissioned by God to provide its kings.

FORTH EDIT: Proverbs 30:18-19 has nothing to do with a sign. You are bringing an argument into the matter that isn't applicable to the issue.

Answer 6

Isaiah 7:14 "Therefore the LORD himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel." That's from the King James Version.

Answer 7

Isa 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

Mat 1:23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.

Luk 1:26 And in the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God unto a city of Galilee, named Nazareth,
Luk 1:27 To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin's name was Mary.
Luk 1:28 And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.

Answer 8

Isa 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

Answer 9

Copyright 100prophecies.org
Isaiah 7:14
Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and [*] will call him Immanuel.
* either "he" or "they"

Answer 10

i believe in the Lord and everything, but come on now. I believe some things people make up as they go along, i mean, we dont even know who truly wrote the bible, now do we?