My landlord was was informed beforehand that was available to lease for 6 months. They presented me with a 1 year contract in which I crossed out the "year long" dates and input the "6 month" dates. I then sign and dated the contract and return it. The contract still required a signature from the landlord and a date. Now after 6 months the landlord states that I still have 6 more months left on the contract. If he signed and dated the contract after I altered it, does that mean he agreed to my adjustments? He specifically knew I would not be available for the full year and still urged me to stay until I had to leave.
2007-12-04 18:19:57 · 8 answers · asked by John F 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
The contract you signed is the legal one. If he accepted the contract with you crossing over the one year its should be legal if he also signed even when you crossed out the one year. If he never signed the contract then the contract is not valid unless he signs it. And if he did not sign it you should be able to leave whenever you want. Call your attorney general office in your state to find out about landlord tenet laws. Call 411 for the number if you cant find it in your phone book.
2007-12-04 18:37:17 · answer #1 · answered by eveana678 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Do you have an ammended copy of the contract? If so he would have a rough go in court proving that the INTENTION was for more than 6 months. If only one copy exists or was signed. I think the issue is proof of what was being agreed to.
In law you must sign (or intitial)all 'variations' writen on the contract for it to be absolutely enforcable. If you're prepared for a fight you have the odds in your favor. But it could work out expensive. I would try negotiating mention things like publicity and the Better business bureau etc. If he's anysort of a business man he would see the hassle costing him more than he'd gain.
For future reference ALWAYS insist that both sideds intitial all variations to the prented text and get a copy' for your family lawyer' and watch the attitude change. rule of thumb If he fusses you don't want the property.
2007-12-04 18:42:56 · answer #2 · answered by Angry Ant 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Tricky, usually handwritten changes to a contract are initialed by both parties. If you still have your copy of the contract you might stand a chance. Because then he would have to prove that that was not part of the deal. If your willing to loose your deposit over it, I would move out with due notice, and let him try to take me to small claims court, the the burden of proof would be on him.
2007-12-04 18:32:53 · answer #3 · answered by sabina-2004@sbcglobal.net 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I do not think it would hold up in the court of law, because I believe the changes would have to be in print...He could argue that the changes were made after his signature or that he did not know of any alterations...basically the handwritten edit would not be valid on a lease
2007-12-04 18:25:07 · answer #4 · answered by Anastasia F 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Contract law doesn't care if the contract is hand-written or typed or both - as long as the changes were made prior to both oyou signing, you're in the clear & he's just trying to advantage of you. If he never signed it, then he legally can't hold you to a year-long contract (Statute of Frauds).
2007-12-04 18:40:14 · answer #5 · answered by Banana Esq 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Technically it's a binding contract, and you can move out.
For future reference, always have both parties initial and date each handwritten change.
2007-12-04 19:23:56 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the contract HE signed had your changes on it, then your changes are binding against him. Your six month contract was a counteroffer to his one year contract. He signed it, and now the agreement is for a six month term.
2007-12-04 18:25:29 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
If the contract with "six months" on it was signed by both of you then it's legally binding.
Richard
2007-12-04 18:29:01 · answer #8 · answered by rickinnocal 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋