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4 answers

I'm sorry but your question makes no stinkin' sense.

2007-12-04 18:23:05 · answer #1 · answered by Roman Soldier 5 · 1 0

No, I don't think so.

I think it is more or less the joining of the right hand with the left in peaceful abilivlence and wondrous jubilation as one stares up into the empty sky late at night sipping on a mug of dark German beer with generous hunks of cheese and crackers close by.

The summation of the Pre with or within the Post is a rather anticlimactic event which tends to creep up upon one after strenuous exertion and the countless trials and tribulations that mark every single day of our lives on this rocky defile.
Only by bowing down and cleansing our minds of all thought will we ever hope to see the emergence of the true nebular ornification and singular magnificent prepondance.

2007-12-05 08:24:29 · answer #2 · answered by zahbudar 6 · 0 0

such a question presumes that it is possible for the pre and the post to simultaneously exist, something that afaik is generally thought of as impossible except possibly inside of a black hole

now if we are to presume that a black hole is the particle equivalent of infinity, and we presume that once beyond the event horizon time and space as we know it cease to exist, then claiming infinty causes time would be dead wrong.

now thats alot of presuming.

now go read some string theory books, some General relativity theory books, some quantum mechanics books and you have a much better understanding/answer than I could ever pull outa my ****.

2007-12-05 02:36:21 · answer #3 · answered by dazed and confused 3 · 1 0

Your question is poorly constructed. As for time, it is a man man made thing. It had to invented in order to to be able to calculate speed and distance of motion. Think about it.

2007-12-05 12:11:01 · answer #4 · answered by johnandeileen2000 7 · 0 0

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