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m and n are positive integers, such that n ≤ m. Prove that:
2^n * n! ≤ (m + n)! / (m - n)! ≤ (m^2 + m)^n

Please answer this problem with work and reasoning for what you did.

Thanks!

And does this problem require combinations in order for the inequality to be proved?

2007-12-04 08:30:58 · 2 answers · asked by UnknownD 6 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

Or does it require AM-GM inquality?

2007-12-04 08:32:37 · update #1

I think I'm making it there!!!!

Don't answer this question until I say "OKAY!"

Thanks!

If you got the answer keep it to yourself for now.

2007-12-04 08:53:48 · update #2

Okay just answer freely. I'm still working on it though. I'll just not read this question for the time being.

2007-12-04 08:57:23 · update #3

I'm currently using a different method to solve this. Actually I'm doing homework =P.

2007-12-04 10:54:14 · update #4

And yea, I did think of it as 2n terms. For the proof I've been working on so far works with n terms seperately. I intend to use the AM-GM inquality after it. Not sure how it might come out.

2007-12-04 10:56:03 · update #5

2 answers

(2n)! ≤ (m+n)!/(m-n)!
Since (m+n)!/(m-n)! is a product of 2n consecutive integers.
2^n*n! ≤ (2n)!
and the left inequality is established. For the right inequality, expand (m+n)!/(m-n)!,
(m+n)(m+n-1)(m+n-2) ... (m-n+1)
As stated before, there are 2n terms and we can pair each term to sum add up to 2m+1. For example, we can pair (m+n) with (m-n+1), (m+n-1) with (m-n+2), etc.
[(m+n)(m-n+1)] * [(m+n-1)(m-n+2)] * ... * [(m+1)(m)]
For any two positive integers whose sum add up to 2m+1, their product is biggest when the integers are consecutive(why?), namely m and m+1. So each pair's product is less than
m(m+1)=m^2+m
Since there are n pairs, their whole product is less than
(m^2+m)^n
which establishes the upper bound.

2007-12-04 09:51:17 · answer #1 · answered by moshi747 3 · 1 1

This is not too bad if you think of each as a product with 2n terms.

(m + n)! / (m - n)! =
(m+n) * ... * (m+1) * m * ... * (m-n+1)

2^n * n! ≤ (m + n)! / (m - n)! follows from the facts that:
(m-n+i) > i for all 1 <= i <= n and
(m+i) > 2 for all 1<= i <= n

To get (m + n)! / (m - n)! ≤ (m^2 + m)^n notice that:
m^2 + m = m(m+1) and
m(m+1) >= (m - i)(m+1+i) for all i > 0

2007-12-04 10:10:58 · answer #2 · answered by Phineas Bogg 6 · 0 0

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