2007-12-04 04:20:54 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
"It takes two to tango" means that two people in a fight are both responsible for that fight. Example: "He hit me first; it wasn't my fault!"
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The etymology and exact time of origination of the phrase is unknown . Some assert that it originated in Argentina and it stemmed from the ballroom dancing lingo.
http://ezinearticles.com/?It-Takes-Two-to-Tango&id=223756
A long standing cliché asserts that Tango originated in the brothels of Argentina. According to this cliché, men had to wait in line at the brothels, so madams employed Tango musicians to keep the men entertained while they waited. Alas, Tango historians have refuted this version and instead say that the dance originated in the lower class districts of Argentina but was first encountered by the wealthier classes in brothels. The brothels were one of the few places where the rich and poor rubbed elbows.
2007-12-04 04:34:32 · answer #1 · answered by QuiteNewHere 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The phrase "It takes two to tango" appeared in popular usage in 1952, shortly after the song "Takes Two to Tango," written by Al Hoffman and Dick Manning, and sung by Pearl Bailey, became a hit. The lyrics are an argument against the single life ("You can haunt any house by yourself, Be a man or a mouse by yourself, You can act like a king on a throne, There are lots of things that you can do alone, But it takes ... Two to tango, two to tango"), but "two to tango" was almost immediately drafted to describe any situation, from international negotiations to bar fights, that required, by definition, two participants.
2007-12-04 12:24:14 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
It DOES take two to tango. By extension, it is used to suggest that a person accused (or guilty) of something did not act alone. An example might be:
Qu. 'You know that X is an adulterer?'
Ans. 'Yes, but it takes two to tango.'
Why tango? I suspect euphony. It sounds better than (for instance) 'it takes two to waltz' (even though it does).
2007-12-04 12:25:14 · answer #3 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends what its referring to. Usually it means that it wasnt just one person doing something. That both parties are equally at fault.
Thats if you're in trouble.
2007-12-04 12:24:11 · answer #4 · answered by Angelita Amante 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋