Hindustan as we know it, How and when did she become India? Any thoughts?
2007-12-04 03:48:20 · 10 answers · asked by Raji 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
The name India may refer to either the region of Greater India (the Indian subcontinent), or to the contemporary Republic of India contained therein. The term is derived from the name of the Sindhu (Indus River) and has been in use in Greek since Plutarchus[1] (1st century CE). The term appears in Old English in the 9th century, and again in Modern English since the 17th century.
The English term is from Greek Ἰνδία, via Latin India. Ἰνδία in Byzantine (Koine Greek) ethnography denotes the region beyond the Ἰνδός river, since Herodotus (5th century BCE) ἡ Ἰνδική χώρη "Indian land", Ἰνδός "an Indian", from Avestan Hinduš (referring to Sindh, and listed as a conquered territory by Darius I in the Persepolis terrace inscription). The name is derived ultimately from Sindhu, the Sanskrit name of the river, but also meaning "river" generically. Latin India is used by Lucian (2nd century).
The name India was known in Anglo-Saxon, and was used in King Alfred's translation of Orosius. In Middle English, the name was, under French influence, replaced by Ynde or Inde, which entered Early Modern English as Indie. The use of the name India dates from the 17th century onwards, and may be due to the influence of Latin, or Spanish or Portuguese. [2]
Sanskrit indu "drop (of Soma)", also a term for the Moon, is unrelated, but has sometimes been erroneously connected. Listed by, among others, Colonel James Todd in his Annals of Rajputana, he describes the ancient India under control of tribes claiming descent from the Moon, or "Indu", (referring to Chandravanshi Rajputs), and their influence in Trans-Indian regions where they referred to the land as Industhan.
2007-12-04 04:09:18 · answer #1 · answered by peter aka gaurav. 3 · 2⤊ 3⤋
The term is derived from the name of the Sindhu (Indus River) and has been in use in Greek since Plutarchus (1st century CE). The term appears in Old English in the 9th century, and again in Modern English since the 17th century.
2007-12-04 11:54:53 · answer #2 · answered by the_lipsiot 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
In the indian history, Foreigners thought Hindustanis to be Indians, Indians means Adivasis according to them, as the old indian people were Black and fashionless. They were narrow minded.
When Aishwariya Rai, the beauty of India went to US for the 1st time, she was also called the Black Beauty.
This is because she was born in India.
Many more things r there.........
But many foreigners also think that we r not like that and i think they are the good people.
Thanks.
2007-12-05 13:23:08 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Well Raj, if you don't even know the history of India's name,
I'd suggest you go back and learn. (Cause I don't know either). Something to do with a King named Bharat I think.
2007-12-10 10:51:53 · answer #4 · answered by mx. know it all 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
From the Indus River which was in our country then and now is in Pakistan.
2007-12-04 12:17:56 · answer #5 · answered by The Ranger 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It is due to the Indus river, and the civilisation which developed on its banks
2007-12-05 12:48:17 · answer #6 · answered by daisyfresh 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
india was derived from the word indus
2007-12-06 05:34:14 · answer #7 · answered by assu 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i think india came with the britishers
in uk/usa tribals are called indians
so is india
2007-12-04 11:52:49 · answer #8 · answered by sunnyindianboy 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
they did not give up the path of righteousness.
2007-12-04 12:02:58 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I really don't know .
2007-12-04 13:31:51 · answer #10 · answered by Rahul B 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋