RAPE OR SHOPLIFTING
2007-12-03 23:25:41 · 25 answers · asked by kevin friend 6 in Politics & Government ➔ Law Enforcement & Police
Obtaining services by deception?
2007-12-03 23:39:14 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
Neither.
But, thereafter, you could get done every time you 'do it' with anyone, for the possible crime of homocide by passing on an STD.
So, don't even think about this scenario as being cute.
The very word "prostitution" means, literally, "payment before", so you cannot actually say you were with a 'prostitute' unless you paid for those services before.
If you performed an act of a sexual nature with any person, regardless of their potential to have been paid for it in the past, and you performed it without their permission, it is rape, but not with a prostitute, it is simply rape with a victim.
Contrary to the erroneous beliefs of the contributor named "Dr Drop Dead", prostitution is only illegal in most places in the world. There are many places in the US where compensation for erotic acts is not illegal, and not just in Nevada. Even in the so-called "Bible Belt" of the Deep South States, you can find counties wherein you can find 'bordellos' where you can pay someone to perform erotic acts with you, and never even begin to fear any kind of criminal repercussion, because, those places have laws set up the way they do to obtain taxational revenues from you for patronizing such places.
So, don't think that if you tried to have their services without paying that you wouldn't wind up facing some sort of courtroom battle.
2007-12-04 07:36:18 · answer #2 · answered by Robert G 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you were in a place where prostitution is illegal, then you would both probably be arrested. Her for prostitution, and you for soliciting a prostitute. As for the money, she would most likely have to take you to civil court. Of course you could try to argue that you weren't aware that she was a prostitute and with a good lawyer, you make get off criminally and civilly.
2007-12-04 10:36:41 · answer #3 · answered by spartan 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The laws in England and Wales state it could not be a Bilking (making off without payment) as for the offence of bilking the service being obtained needs to be a legal one.
Obtaining services by deception would have been correct (as there is no requirement for the service to be a legal one)but the fraud act 2006 superseded this and would result in the offence of fraud by false representation.
The talk about payment being required before hand means nothing. The law simply expects payment to be made for a service for payment would typically be expected.
2007-12-04 14:29:17 · answer #4 · answered by ed209 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, it can't be rape because it was consentual. It would be more like "breach of contract". I believe there is actually a legal term called "theft of services". For example, if an electician comes to your home, fixes your problem, and you won't pay him the amount agreed upon, he can immediately call the police who will go there and resolve the dispute.
I used to work for an insurance company, and a policyholder had a collection of expensive cigars (yes, such a thing is possible; there are actually "rare" cigars). He thought he had found a loophole in his policy. He smoked the cigars and then (I'm serious) tried to get reimbursed by the insurance company for fire loss. (I know it sounds crazy, but is has to do with the technical wording of the contract).
The insurance company, having lawyers of its own, counter-sued for ARSON !
2007-12-04 07:38:13 · answer #5 · answered by pachl@sbcglobal.net 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Bilking - making off without payment, unless she alleges rape.
Edit : Prostitution is not illegal in the UK, the act of soliciting, either for oneself or on behalf of another, is illegal, as is living off the earnings arising from prostitution. More than two women sharing accommodation for the purpose of prostitution is a brothel. Providing sex in your own home for payment does not constitute a brothel and is legal - always has been!
2007-12-04 10:17:49 · answer #6 · answered by groovymaude 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Any prostitute that doesn't use the pay before you play system will usually give you a surprise parting gift that may or may not get cleared up with a shot of penicillin.
2007-12-04 07:44:28 · answer #7 · answered by xtowgrunt 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Is prostitution legal? I don't think any prostitute would go to the police to report you for not paying (her) for services done. However, if she has a pimp ( prostitutes often do) and report you to him/them, you better hightail it to someplace where you won't be found. They are more dangerous than the police.
2007-12-04 09:06:14 · answer #8 · answered by annabelle p 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Nothing......There is an old police/legal statement..."you cant bilk a bonk". Bilking means to make off without payment, when instant payment is required for services rendered.
Prostitution is not a legitimate form of work/income, therefore the normal constraints of the law do not apply. However, it is not unheard of for the prostitute to cry rape or robbery etc.
2007-12-04 19:55:43 · answer #9 · answered by carswoody 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
I doubt the prostitute would go to the police under those circumstances. You're more likely to get beat up by her pimp.
2007-12-04 10:19:00 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you went with a pro and didn't pay and then found out that she'd given you an STD would you panic and tell your girlfriend?
2007-12-04 08:26:55 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋