Hypocrite? Much?
2007-12-03 22:53:39 · 14 answers · asked by Birdy is my real name 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
So is premarital sex O.k then?
2007-12-03 22:57:44 · update #1
Is pointing out an unpleasant truth blasphemy?
2007-12-03 23:02:48 · update #2
And where did I mention sex fireball? I think you added that bit didn't you? What a mind you must have!
2007-12-03 23:04:43 · update #3
Logically....I guess so...but logic isn't something religion has.
2007-12-03 22:57:44 · answer #1 · answered by Lynnemarie 6 · 1⤊ 4⤋
No, because it was Divine Intervention that planted the seed within Mary. That is why it is referred to within Christian dogma as The Immaculate Conception. (Catholic dogma also states that Mary was free of Original Sin and that that was the reason that she was chosen to be Jesus' mother.)
And as Mary was not married at the time of Jesus' conception she could not have committed adultery even if the conception had resulted from the "normal" physical act. Adultery requires that at least one of the parties is married to someone else. Absent marriage the act is referred to as fornication which interestingly is NOT prohibited by the Ten Commandments!
2007-12-03 23:02:37 · answer #2 · answered by Bostonian In MO 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Joseph was betrothed to Mary. when the angel told her that she would give birth to Jesus.
that word spoken by the angel, Mary received in her heart, and it became the seed that would develop into a baby.
.
its the same thing that happened when the Holy Spirit hovered over the deep [in Genesis] before God spoke.
it was not until He did. that what He said, came to pass.
.
its the same thing that happens when a person hears the word about salvation.
they receive it in their heart. and it brings salvation to pass.
.
2007-12-03 23:45:33 · answer #3 · answered by opalist 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1. Mary was not married at the time.
2. God did not have sex with Mary. He simply placed the life of Jesus into her womb. Mary was a virgin when she gave birth.
Read your Bible much?
2007-12-03 23:02:06 · answer #4 · answered by johnusmaximus1 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
What a debased mind?
The truth is that in those days, adultery could mean an execution. How ever this miracle occurred, it happened. That is agreed because Jesus fulfilled many other things that were written hundreds of years before he was born.
2007-12-03 23:05:05 · answer #5 · answered by fire 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
God spoke the word, He didn't litterly have sex with Mary. God spoke and it became done just as He did at creation.
2007-12-03 23:06:04 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
they married after she got pregnant! This is not adultery by definition!
if you are going to throw stones at a religion at least learn about it first.
this way it does not come off as making you look ignorant.
Read the book before you criticize it!
2007-12-03 23:03:14 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Uh your timing is off. She wasn't married to Joseph at the time.
And since there was nothing physical involved in the conception, I think the point is moot.
2007-12-03 22:57:05 · answer #8 · answered by Q&A Queen 7 · 4⤊ 0⤋
They were betrothed at the time, not married.
So it was premarital sex and fornication.
God Fornicated Under Consent of the King'ed the young lady.
2007-12-03 22:56:36 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 4⤋
god should gotten arrested for violation or harrassment or something!
oh btw, your pregnant? human rights?
2007-12-03 23:11:05 · answer #10 · answered by liquorice coloured glasses 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That's not a question it's utter blasphemy.
2007-12-03 23:00:16 · answer #11 · answered by Binahl 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋