For example: When I write an academic paper I write in a form that is not true to the way that I "speak" in everyday conversations...
However, if I write a friend a letter, I might "write" verbatim to what I would say if I were talking to her on the phone; Hey girl, what's up with you etc.
Is it the same for the Spanish language? Can you "write" verbatim what you say.....like you can in English?
2007-12-03
17:06:37
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5 answers
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asked by
Sillira
3
in
Society & Culture
➔ Languages
Yes I know all languages have formal and unformal language..... but not every language "writes" what it "speaks". for example Asian languages use symbols but the symbols are not the exact written form as what they would speak. or are they?
For example what I write is an exact replication of what would come out of my mouth if I were "talking" this to you...
2007-12-03
18:08:10 ·
update #1
Yes I know all languages have formal and unformal language..... but not every language "writes" what it "speaks". for example Asian languages use symbols but the written symbols are not the exact written form as what they would speak. or are they?
For example what I write is an exact replication of what would come out of my mouth if I were "talking" this to you...
2007-12-03
18:09:58 ·
update #2
I got a little confused as I continued to read your question. I'm now not sure about whether you're asking about things like grammar or whether you're asking about sounds of the language. In either case, the answer is no.
About the sounds:
You are right that it is clearly not possible for a language with a picture-based writing system, like Chinese, to have a close relationship between the sounds that people speak and the written version. Actually, English is well-known for not having a close relationship between the way its sounds are represented in the writing system either. For example, a word that is spelled k-n-i-g-h-t is pronounced like [nait]. We have all kinds of silent letters and strange letter combinations. The spelling system of English was created a long time ago and the pronunciation has changed since then, so the letters and the sounds don't match up as well as they used to. Hence, we get words that are spelled p-s-y-c-h-o-l-o-g-y but are said something like "saikalaji".
Spanish is a little less complicated in this regard, but still does not have a one-to-one relationship between sounds and spelling. For example, the letter combination g-u-i is pronounced "gi"; it's a combination of two sounds that is written with three letters. There are also some cases where two different letters are used to represent the same sound (for example, "s" and "z" represent the same sounds in American dialects of Spanish) and so forth. Spanish also has silent h. I have seen a spelling book that contained a number of exercises intended to teach Spanish speakers how to spell difficult words. If the writing system represented the sounds directly, this wouldn't be an issue.
About the grammar:
You are correct that in English there is a difference between what you would write in an academic paper and what you would write in a letter to a friend. For example, in an e-mail to a friend you would be much more likely to write "gonna".
Spanish has similar differences between different communication situations. There are different words and grammar that people will use depending on the formality and conventions of the situation. My Spanish speaking friends use different grammar and even different orthography (spelling) and punctuation in informal situations. I find it helpful sometimes to read what they have written out loud and then listen to it; this helps me understand better.
2007-12-03 19:24:56
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answer #1
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answered by drshorty 7
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I don't know about other languages. I can only speak for spanish.
I have been in Latin American (as a native english speaker that learned to speak fluent spanish) for well over a decade and I can tell you this much -
Spanish speakers are very emotional. And they don't hold back even on a professional level. If you buy a newpaper and read the crime page to see what's been going on, you'll find reporters saying all kinds of gastly things. They'll write in their story that "some evil bastard robbed the store on 8th street."
I know many, many families thruout Mexico and I've listen to the toddlers and they swear like a sailor. Parents don't seem to mind. I think they were brought up the same way and, after a long enough time spanning generations, the words loose that "nasty" edge or meaning. They just become well, words like any others.
However, like all cultures, when doing science or social regulation, words are carefully chosen and so, YES, it is the same in spanish but not nearly so heavily in the spanish culture as in American culture. In scientific or legal literature or other formal documents, the language stays formal because it has to in order to be completely logical and technically correct. But give a Latino a chance to get outside of that box and "sparks will fly."
I once had lunch with a judge about an hour south of the border. I was amazed. He was as free as a bird and let obsenities fly without any thought. I had a great time and we shared many laughs. Our time was short though because he had to get back to the bench.
See what I mean?
Rich
2007-12-03 19:11:27
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answer #2
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answered by litehaus22 4
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A Spanish-speaking person is far more likely to write verbatim than an English speaking person, simply because colloquial Spanish does not vary from the written language nearly as much as English.
2007-12-03 18:04:53
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answer #3
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answered by GrahamH 7
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i assume that will depend on if you recognize the character. I hate whilst men and women stroll as much as me and begin talking spanish, even though they're latino as good. I could instead talk english, specially in public. Now if its a pal, it doenst trouble me. I have a white pal who's beautiful good at spanish, and we talk to one another in spanish as soon as and a even as. however to expect i do know spanish simply purpose i'm latino is flawed. purpose i do know plenty of mexican american citizens who dont talk the language.
2016-09-05 20:36:40
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answer #4
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answered by ? 4
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Yes, every language has formal and informal modes of speaking, depending on the occasion. There are slang terms, colloquial expressions, and vernacular as well.
2007-12-03 17:14:48
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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