If not, what do you think it means? (before you answer, consider that you will be judged with what judgment you judge)
2007-12-03 15:53:06 · 22 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
(and before you ask, yes, I've read the whole book)
2007-12-03 15:53:42 · update #1
I hope everybody realizes that I'm reaching to show how ridiculous it looks from the other end. I'm construing in a competely plausible way, but not he popular way. What if, in time, this is the meaning that Christians come to accept?
Anything is possible. Isn't is possible that much like how 1 Timothy 2:11-13 and 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 are disregarded or explained away now, why couldn't Galations 3:28 be interpreted in a very radical way in the future?
2007-12-03 16:10:34 · update #2
Wow...sorry about the grammatical errors in that last edit! Yeesh!
2007-12-03 16:11:31 · update #3
If you're going to make me look it up I am not going to play. The least you could do would be to quote us the verse. I'm as lazy as you are.
2007-12-03 15:57:16 · answer #1 · answered by going postal 7 · 5⤊ 3⤋
28There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
This verse is talking about the caste system. It is saying that when you become Christians you are all siblings. The Jews are not more holy. The Greeks are not more cultured. The slaves are not downtrodden. The free are not better than the enslaved. Men and women shouldn't use their gender to play with each other's heads.
It is not saying that we are all androgonous and should go out and have wanton sex with anything that moves, irregardless of physiological realities. It is also not saying that it is OK to sin.
It is merely saying all practicing Christians are socially equal.
Also in Paul's day anyone who was actively living a sinful lifestyle was removed from the fellowship poste haste.
2007-12-04 00:06:34 · answer #2 · answered by Truth 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The passage is talking about equality between different groups of people. It was not intended to give a license for homosexuality. Paul the author of Galatians also wrote Romans. In Romans 1:18-32 Paul clearly expresses that homosexual acts are a perversion ( of god's intention for sex).
2007-12-04 00:13:40 · answer #3 · answered by Diane D. 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Wow. Are you really asking this? I don't claim to know all the bible but have you prayed for the Holy Spirit first so you could read the bible before you read it? I cannot believe you see it from the view you see it from. Obviously, not reading it with the Holy Spirit's eyes. I am not judging you. But uncircumcise your heart (and get your hackles down) and really ask for the Holy Spirit to be present. You must do this with a sincere, meek and humble heart to accept Him in. You may not like what you will find out but at least you will read with the eyes of truth.
BTW - Ryan B - dang kid you know your stuff! I will pray for your continued walk with the Lord. May you always be blessed by God!
2007-12-04 00:12:09 · answer #4 · answered by Lisa2000 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No, I don't believe that's what Galatians 3:28 means. If you read the entire chapter you'll recognize that the message being expressed concerns promises that were made to Abraham and his seed. Many at that time believed that gentiles could not inherit this promise because they were not biological seed of Abraham. This verse explains that those who come into the faith of Abraham become his heirs and inherit his promise.
Blessings.
2007-12-04 00:03:00 · answer #5 · answered by child of God 6 · 5⤊ 1⤋
.
What is the point? Why do you secretly think that ............before you answer, consider that you will be judged with what judgment you judge. Why is there a basic instinct to put the fear of God, in case a professing Christian did not judge uprightly?
Thus, deep down in your wicked and depraved heart, you know there is a God, and His law is written in your conscience............... you may pervert it, you may deny it, you may despised it, deep deep down in the labyrinth of your very wicked, and deceitful heart..........
..........you know there is God, but refused to repent, refused to submit, refused to worship Him and Him alone.
In the same chapter about judgment in Matt 7.............
Mat 7:6 Give not that which is holy unto the dogs, neither cast ye your pearls before swine, lest they trample them under their feet, and turn again and rend you.
Now, if you would and could humble yourself and kiss my.........
I may consider teaching you!!!!
Balaam's A S S had spoken
.
2007-12-04 00:36:07 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Since I am not gay, then I do not care if I am judged by the same judgment that I am judging others. I am not a closet gay hypocrite.
It simply means that everyone is saved by the same method, irregardless if he is male or female, Greek or Jew, Roman or Barbarian, slave or lord. Everyone is of equal value before God.
Why do you think that this is talking about gay people? It says nothing about sex or lust. If you think that it is talking about transgendered people, then what is that other stuff about Greeks, Barbarians, slaves, and so on in there for?
2007-12-03 23:59:43 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 2⤋
There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
I don't see how this relates to homosexuality really. It's saying that once you are saved we are all one in Christ, part of His body.
A better verse for you to quote would be I Corinthians 6:11, now that would be something to talk about.
2007-12-03 23:58:28 · answer #8 · answered by Last Ent Wife (RCIA) 7 · 6⤊ 1⤋
Paul isn't saying these distinctions don't exist, he is saying they shouldn't define how we treat people. This passage calls for a form of social equality that has yet to be fully realized even today.
2007-12-04 00:03:23 · answer #9 · answered by Harbinger 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋
No, being homosexual is not a sin. It's the actions that result from being homosexual that is a sin, just like for those who aren't homosexual.
Sex before marriage is a sin whether or not you're gay/lesbian/bi/straight or whatever. Since gay marriage is prohibited in the bible, homosexuals are not supposed to have sex, as well as ALL who aren't married.
I hope this helped!
2007-12-03 23:57:30 · answer #10 · answered by Hello Goodbye 3 · 7⤊ 2⤋
28There is neither Jew nor Greek, slave nor free, male nor female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus.
The verse seems to deal with ethnicity, social status, and sex...all matters that a person may be born into...really none of them are a choice to sin. Sexuality, both for heterosexuals, homosexuals, pedophiles, and any other behavior in the spectrum of human sexuality...are a matter of choice. The standard is written in the Bible, and you either choose to abide by it, or you don't. Homosexuality lands in the sin column, to answer your question.
2007-12-03 23:59:41 · answer #11 · answered by Yahoo Answer Angel 6 · 5⤊ 3⤋