Hi Nina.
Thanks for the opportunity to answer and to address this important issue, the TRUE identity of the Lord Jesus Christ.
First off, I would encourage any JW's who are sincere seekers of God to check out the link to my previous answer on the same subject, which user Joyfilled has kindly provided. I hope that you will give serious consideration to the points made both there, and those which I am about to bring to your attention. May you truly be as the noble Bereans, searching the scriptures thoroughly to determine which teachings are of God, and which are not. May the Lord graciously guide you into all HIS truth.
For the sake of this discussion, let us suppose that the Watchtower teaching regarding the pre-incarnate, pre-existent identity of the Lord Jesus Christ IS true. That Jesus was (and, according to JW theology, now is) the archangel, Michael.
If that were the case, the Watchtower adherents would STILL be guilty of disobedience before God, in PRACTICE, if not in theology. The Bible is very clear that the Lord Jesus shares WORSHIP with the Father :
As Revelation 5:13 & 14 shows, "Blessing and honor and GLORY and power be to Him who sits on the throne, AND TO THE LAMB, FOREVER AND EVER! AMEN." (caps for emphasis).
Although distinction of PERSONS is clearly made here, there is, however, NO DISTINCTION made in either the english translation or the original Greek between the GLORY given to the Father and the Son. If any JW can prove otherwise, please feel free to do so.
Consider also, Isaiah 42:8 -
"I am YHWH, that is My name; And My GLORY I will not give to another, nor my praise to carved images." (caps for emphasis)
So why does the Lamb receive GOD'S glory, Witnesses? Has Jehovah changed His mind?
Indeed, it is the Father's will that the Son shares His glory.
John 5:22 & 23 -
"For the Father judges no one, but has committed all judgment to the Son, that all should honor the Son JUST AS THEY HONOR THE FATHER. HE WHO DOES NOT HONOR THE SON DOES NOT HONOR THE FATHER WHO SENT HIM." (caps for emphasis)
Even secular history attests to the fact that the early Christians sang songs of WORSHIP to Christ -
Consider the letter of Pliny the Younger to the Roman emperor, Trajan, which states that the Christians "...were accustomed to meet on a fixed day before dawn and sing responsively a hymn to Christ as to a god" -
http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/source/pliny1.html
As recently as 1961, even the NWT rendered "proskuneo" in Hebrews 1:6 as "worship". Enough said.
Regarding 1 Thessalonians 4:16 -
The voracious proof-texters of the Watchtower regularly seize upon this scripture in a bid to support their teaching that Jesus is Michael. However, one text does not necessarily a doctrine make. As we shall see...
In Matthew 25, Jesus shares with us the parable of the virgins. Of course, this parable is a clear illustration concerning the Lord's second coming.
Now we know that the bridegroom referred to in this parable is a picture of the Lord Himself. The Lord previously refers to Himself as such in Matthew 9:15. John the Baptist also clearly intimates that Jesus is the bridegroom (John 3:28-30).
Having established the identity of the bridegroom as the returning Lord Jesus, let's turn our attention to Matthew 25:6 -
"AND AT MIDNIGHT A CRY WAS HEARD: 'BEHOLD, THE BRIDEGROOM IS COMING, GO OUT TO MEET HIM!" (caps for emphasis)
So, according to this scripture, the Lord Jesus DOES NOT herald His own return. SOMEONE ELSE DOES.
Who is that someone?
It is the archangel in 1 Thessalonians 4:16.
Please note that a trumpet is also sounded at the Lord's return. Who sounds that trumpet? The answer is in Revelation 11:15. It is the last of the seven angels before God's throne (Rev. 8:2), who arguably correspond with the SEVEN archangels of Jewish tradition, one of whom is Michael, "...ONE of the foremost princes" (Daniel 10:13, NWT. Emphasis mine)
So the voice of the (an?) archangel DOES NOT belong to Jesus. Not according to the Bible.
Regarding your comments, JC -
Jesus can quite legitimately refer to His Father as "the only true God" and "My God", because He is speaking from the position of HUMANITY as well as DEITY. Contrary to Watchtower teaching, even in resurrection and glorification, Christ is STILL human, and NOT an angel.
Consider this statement made by the glorified Lord Jesus FROM HEAVEN -
"I am the root and the OFFSPRING of David" (Revelation 22:16, caps mine). Incidentally, the Greek IS rendered in the PRESENT tense.
If Jesus is now an angel as the Watchtower teach, how could He possibly be the offspring of the man, David? Not to mention the fact that THROUGHOUT Revelation, Jesus REPEATEDLY refers to Himself as "Jesus Christ", and NEVER as Michael. The fact that Michael is mentioned by name elsewhere in Revelation, only adds strength to the argument that these are two distinct and separate persons, unlike the Father and the Son - who are distinct, BUT NOT SEPARATE - as I will show later.
John 1:18 - You quote very selectively re this verse, as is usually the case with JW's in general.
"No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, HE HAS DECLARED HIM." (caps for emphasis)
Indeed, no man has physically seen the invisible God in all of His glory, although YHWH HAS appeared in human form previously, according to Genesis chapter 18, for example. So, I suggest that your understanding of the Greek "horao", is somewhat superficial, here. The word can also mean "to perceive" in a sense beyond the mere visual.
The Lord Jesus is "the exact representation of (God's) very being" (i.e. God in the flesh, ref - Hebrews 1:3, NWT. Insert mine).
The primary way that Christ "explained" God was by His speech and conduct. Being the "exact representation" of God (not "a god") He was therefore able to boldly reply to Phillip, "He who has seen me HAS SEEN THE FATHER" (John 14:9). Pretty strong claim to deity, as far as I can see. Again, GOD IN THE FLESH.
When you only concentrate on HALF a verse, JC, it is no wonder that you arrive at erroneous conclusions.
Where in the Bible does it state God is a Trinity? There is, of course, no EXPLICIT statement of the "concept". However, there is a particular passage which, in my estimation, most strongly implies it.
In John 14:16 & 17, the Lord Jesus says that He will send the "parakletos" (incidentally, a Greek term only used of one other person in the NT - Christ, in 1 John 2:1), the Holy Spirit, to the disciples.
Having made this statement, He then proceeds to say, in verse 18, "I will not leave you orphans; I will come to you." Bear in mind that He has just said He will go away, and send someone else in His place.
But there's more -
Verse 23 -
"If anyone loves Me, he will keep My word; and My Father will love him, and WE will come to him, and make OUR home with him." (caps mine)
So Jesus says that not only will the Holy Spirit come to the TRUE believer, but also the Father AND Himself.
How do you explain that away?
In regard to your question, "Who has control over the Angels, Jesus or Michael? Because in the NT, it states that the Angels are Jesus and Michael's, but Jesus was given authority over all the angels."
In answer, a worldly army can be commanded by officers of DIFFERENT ranks at any given time, right? A captain OR a general can fulfill this function. If we are to apply your Watchtower reasoning further, we must ultimately conclude that Jehovah is Michael, by virtue of the fact that Jude 14 states -
"Look! JEHOVAH came with his holy myriads, to execute judgment against all..." (NWT, emphasis mine)
Of course, JC, your "logic" is faulty. Michael is NOT Jehovah, but Jesus IS. Revelation 12:7 OBVIOUSLY refers to an event different from Jude 14, which pertains to the Lord's second coming in judgement OF THE WORLD. Jude 14 actually bears a remarkable resemblance to Paul's writing in 2 Thessalonians 1:7 & 8 -
"...when the LORD JESUS is revealed from heaven with His mighty angels, in flaming fire taking vengeance on those who do not know God.." (emphasis mine).
Of course, Jude 14 & 1 Thessalonians 1:7 & 8 refer to both the same event, and the SAME PERSON, the Lord, Jehovah the Son. Unlike Revelation 12, which speaks of "war in heaven".
Jesus is the "First and the Last". This is a unique title which He shares with the Father (Isaiah 44:6, Revelation 1:17, 22:13). The Watchtower have made a futile attempt to dismiss this on grammatical grounds, by claiming that the Hebrew applied to YHWH in Isaiah has a different meaning from the Greek applied to Jesus in Revelation 1:17.
However - somewhat ironically - by attributing the speaking in Revelation 22:13 to the Father (Revelation - It's Grand Climax At Hand! Pg.316), they have applied a title to Him which is grammatically IDENTICAL to that given to Jesus in the same book. Even if some Witnesses are prepared to concede that Rev. 22:13 should be applied to Jesus (as most orthodox Christians do), then that still leaves them with the problem of what to do with Revelation 1:8, where the "Lord God" or "Jehovah God" (NWT) not only refers to Himself as "the Alpha and the Omega", but also, "the Almighty". Either way, the Witnesses - if they are to be honest in dealing with the scriptures - have no place to hide on this one.
Revelation is clear that both the Father and the Son share at least one unique and grammatically identical title.
May God be gracious to JW's. I'm praying for YOU people.
Carl. x
********EDIT*******
JC - In regard to 1 Corinthians 8:6, feel free to read Ray Goldsmith's response to JW apologist Greg Stafford re this issue, at the following link -
http://www.forananswer.org/
Click on "Apologists Bible Commentary" and then the 1 Corinthians 8:6 link.
Perhaps YOU would now care to address the points which I have made? Or how about the (I assume) JW that gave my answer a thumbs down?
If you can't answer, why not?
2007-12-06 23:46:44
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answer #1
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answered by Carlito 3
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