It is strange; one can only assume they are unaware that the OT is in fact the Hebrew Bible. I see from the responses that they are somewhat obsessive regarding proselytizing,but atheists are here for no reason other than to propound their own views,and in any event Jews don't proselytize because they view their religion as being strictly for one ethnic group; their racism prohibits teaching it to others. You do notice that despite their relentless attacks on Christianity they virtually always express a profound esteem for Jews and - at least by implication - Judaism. This shows only their illogic. Or their hypocrisy. Or their ignorance. Or all three.
2007-12-03 15:06:13
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answer #1
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answered by Galahad 7
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The Old Laws were in place at the time when that statement was made. Jesus lived under the Old Laws. The point that is commonly missed is that Jesus' death on the cross fulfilled the Old Laws. That is when the Old Testament was fulfilled and the New Testament was established. What happened to the Old Testament (the Old Law, or Old Covenant)? The New Testament tells us, "In that He says, 'A new covenant,' He has made the first obsolete. Now what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away" (Hebrews 8:13). "For on the one hand there is an annulling of the former commandment because of its weakness and unprofitableness, for the law made nothing perfect..." (Hebrews 7:18,19). "Then He said, 'Behold, I have come to do Your will, 0 God.' He takes away the first that He may establish the second" (Hebrews 10:9). "For the priesthood being changed, of necessity, there is also a change of the law" (Hebrews 7:12). The apostle Paul wrote: "Having wiped out the handwriting of requirements (the Law of Moses) that was against us, which was contrary to us, And He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross" (Colossians 2:14). Paul also wrote concerning this Old Law which contained the Ten Commandments: "Therefore the law was our tutor to bring us to Christ, that we might be justified by faith. But after faith has come, we are no longer under a tutor" (Galatians 3:24, 25). When was the Old Law taken away and the New Law given? It happened when Jesus shed His blood on the cross: "And for this reason He is the Mediator of the new covenant, by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions under the first covenant, that those who are called may receive the promise of the eternal inheritance. For where there is a testament, there must also of necessity be the death of the testator. For a testament is in force after men are dead, since it has no power at all while the testator lives" (Hebrews 9:15-17).
2016-05-28 01:03:43
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answer #2
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answered by ? 3
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A lot of atheists have had the bad luck to meet the extreme fundamentalists. They do try and convert others. I know you're Catholic and us Catholics don't do that. Nor do most of Christians with the exception of some groups. It is these experiences that have lead them to hate Christians and to only point the finger of suspicion at Christians. They never question Jews because Jews don't proselytize also many have respect for what the Jews went through in the past. They will never think of saying anything bad at them. Atheists my message to you: is the fundamentalists you hate, not Christians. We are not the same.
2007-12-03 09:06:18
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answer #3
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answered by cynical 7
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Jews are a lot less annoying. To be honest, I find all the three faiths of the book equally funny. And I rarely ask questions about them, unless I want a specific bit of information.
One factor might be that there aren't too many jewish people around... if I did ask an OT question, I'd ask it as an OT question, not a christian question. Get it?
Are you really demading equal-abuse to all faiths? So, I can't ask you, unless I ask equally much of all the other faiths, should I also do equal amount of theist questions and atheist? Why are christians so sensitive?
2007-12-03 09:28:46
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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The Jewish, along with the Muslims, the Hindu and other religious folk, do not question why I do not believe, nor try to convert me. If Jews did so, then I would fire right back and question their beliefs, also, but they don't, so I won't. And when the Christians stop doing the same, I'll take the same approach and leave them alone.
2007-12-03 09:05:21
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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The reason we don't ask Jews about it is because most of our questions regarding that scripture are to learn the Christian point of view. It IS Christian scripture as well, you know. They didn't just stick it at the front of your Bible for the heck of it. That is your god as well.
2007-12-03 09:06:35
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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I don't recall ever have seen a question addressed to atheists posed by a Jew. The preponderance of questions about atheism come from Christians, and therefore, the preponderance of responses are in response to those questions.
2007-12-03 09:01:47
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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"Why do atheists never ask Jews about this-or-that in the OT?"
I doubt too many atheists want to KNOW what "this-or-that in the OT" means, per se.
I think we usually ask why they use "this-or-that in the OT" to justify an insane position on something.
And why would we ask Jews about "this-or-that in the OT"?
They aren't the ones trying to push insanity into our classrooms and laws.
I come here for the comedy - fundies do comedy best.
Thank YOU! for contributing to my daily mirth.
2007-12-03 09:03:44
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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I have never once in my life had a jew try and convert me or "save" me. and i'm related to a lot of them.
2007-12-03 09:07:05
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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because Christians greatly outnumber our Jewish comrades therefor more questions are directed at them.
2007-12-03 08:59:20
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answer #10
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answered by alana 5
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