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http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rapture

2007-12-03 07:37:25 · 10 answers · asked by Bruce 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

10 answers

Because it is not from Jesus.

The "rapture" seems to be based on a misinterpretation of Matt 24, where Jesus talks about some being "taken" while others are "left." However, Jesus has been talking about Noah, where those who obey God are NOT taken by the waters of the flood. Jesus is warning us about his second coming, so that we are not taken by the forces of evil, but left to live on with God.

Another source of misunderstanding is 1 Cor 15: "Behold, I tell you a mystery: We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed— in a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trumpet. For the trumpet will sound, and the dead will be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed."

Note St Paul is talking about the FINAL judgment "at the last trumpet." He is not talking about an intermediate visit to rescue believers from suffering, which would make the final judgment the "third coming."

The rapture is a popular idea for those who want to have Christianity without the cross. Unfortunately, that's not possible.

CDF

2007-12-04 05:57:28 · answer #1 · answered by christiandefenderfaith 4 · 2 0

ozchristianguy posted:
As you know (and the Roman Catholic Church supports) revelation is ongoing. The Roman Catholic Church cites ongoing revelation to explain its growing understanding of the role of Mary.

I reply:
The Church DOES NOT teach an ongoing revelation. Growing in understanding is one thing but there is nothing new under the sun. There is such a thing as private revelation, revelations given to individuals for those particular individuals. There are, however, no new doctrines or dogmas that were not believed from apostolic times. Only better understandings of them.

Here is a small quote from the Papal Encyclical 'Dei Verbum' which was written at the Second Vatican Council in the late 60's. It says "The Christian dispensation, therefore, as the new and definitive covenant, will never pass away and we now await no further new public revelation before the glorious manifestation of our Lord Jesus Christ (see 1 Tim. 6:14 and Tit. 2:13)."

God Bless
Robin

2007-12-04 01:52:31 · answer #2 · answered by Robin 3 · 2 0

They did.

"History has produced a person who has come to be known as "Pseudo-Ephraim." This was a person who wrote under the name "Ephraim the Syrian," probably to give his writing credibility and added weight. But, historians doubt that these later documents were actually penned by the original saint.
Now, one of these documents in question is called "Sermon on the End of the World." There is considerable variation over the time of its authorship, although estimates range anywhere from 373 to 627 AD. Now, this sermon is relatively short, just under 1500 words. It is preserved in four Latin manuscripts, but there are also Greek and Syriac versions remaining. Evidence leads scholars to conclude that the first version of the sermon was most likely written in Syriac, translated into Greek, and from there into Latin.
What's interesting about the multiple early manuscripts, all dating from around the same period, is that the original sermon appears to have been so popular that it was quickly translated into the major languages of the day in order to circulate it widely among the early Church. This was not a hidden, or "shadowy" bit of teaching. This was a popular and well-read document."

Here is the portion of that sermon that concerns the pre-trib rapture:

"For all the saints and elect of God are gathered, prior to the tribulation that is to come, and are taken to the Lord lest they see the confusion that is to overwhelm the world because of our sins."

2007-12-03 07:43:58 · answer #3 · answered by BrotherMichael 6 · 1 1

the easy answer is that the rapture is not taught in the bible. the church that christ established and no other early christian writing taught or teaches this theory. try www.scripturecatholic.com under the rapture section, left hand side or www.earlychristianwritings.com

2007-12-05 16:35:14 · answer #4 · answered by fenian1916 5 · 0 0

Hi Bruce. The same thing can be asked of many Roman Catholic beliefs. As you know (and the Roman Catholic Church supports) revelation is ongoing. The Roman Catholic Church cites ongoing revelation to explain its growing understanding of the role of Mary. Why can't non Roman Catholic groups use the same logic?

2007-12-03 15:13:17 · answer #5 · answered by ozchristianguy 4 · 1 1

Remember the former things of old: for I am God, and there is none else; I am God, and there is none like me ,Declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times the things that are not yet done, saying, My counsel shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure -Isaiah 46:9

2007-12-03 07:48:09 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

The end times are spoke of through out the Old Testament 2000 years before Jesus was born. Jesus spoke of the end times also.

2007-12-03 07:44:12 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

The doctrine was invented in the 1800's, and was first popularize in the 1890's by Jewish zionists trying to enlist the aid of Christians to restore the nation of Israel. It eventually worked.

2007-12-03 07:41:07 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 5

Well they didn't realize it didn't say the Earth was flat for quite a while either.

2007-12-03 07:42:01 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 5

lol............Thanks Bruce, good post !

2007-12-04 16:15:23 · answer #10 · answered by cashelmara 7 · 1 0

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