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Are you aware you are going to hell?

your jesus spoke of it...

Matthew 5:21-22
It was said to the ancients, "Anyone who murders will be subject to judgment." But I say to you that anyone who is angry with a brother will be subject to judgment. Anyone who says, "You fool" Will be subject to the fires of hell.

Matthew 7:26
'Everyone who hears these words of mine and does not put them into practice is like a foolish man!'

2007-12-03 03:26:01 · 21 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

blessed: More cherry picking?

Is the bible literal or not!?!?!?!

2007-12-03 03:35:42 · update #1

tcjstn: so fool means 2 different theings when it's the same word?

Lovely apologetics...

2007-12-03 03:37:21 · update #2

21 answers

My ex just sent me an article about the psychological reasons people believe what they do.
Some of these answers amaze me!
About tcjstn's response-I posted this one contradiction that involved three verses about God being loving and jealous but jealous not being love and got the same thing. Same word means two different things. And the 'almah' word meant 'young girl' in every single OT book but it suddenly meant 'virgin' in the first four books of the NT.
In the end, it's a good thing that it's not real. You should be grateful you no longer live in a nightmare! lol

2007-12-03 05:12:07 · answer #1 · answered by strpenta 7 · 2 0

Yes tcjstn is exactly right. I think the word "RACCA is involved here. And yes the word " fool" as used in this context is translated as " unsaveable ". We are never to call anyone unsaveable. We have no authority to do so, only God has that authority. To do so would only bring judgment upon ourselves. And yes the same word can have two meanings in scripture. Just as it does in our languages of today. For example the word " like" has two meanings but are spelled exactly the same. So remember , when you are reading scripture that there is always at least two meanings to a word. One being a "translation" and the other a "transliteration". Poor little Magley wants to know if the bible is literal or not. Are you saying it can only be literal or non-literal ? Is everything you say to be taken literally? Of course not. Well neither is the bible. So sometimes the bible is literal and sometimes it must be taken as the context and translations require.

2007-12-03 04:07:17 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

This shows the Christians haven't got a clue about what's in the JEWISH bible. They use this verse to back up their idea of Original Sin, that everyone is born in sin. Judaism doesn't have the concept of Original Sin. Nor does Judaism believe or teach that there is nobody who does good and that everyone is evil. This verse in Psalms was referring to a specific TIME in which it was written, in a specifice ERA, and it is NOT referring to the world today, according to Judaism. And that's the only meaning that counts, because it's OUR BOOK, WE wrote it, and WE have the correct meanings for it. So the next time a Christian tries to tell you ANYTHING about the Jewish bible, take it with a huge grain of salt. Then go ask a religious Jew what it means, for the correct interpretation of it.

2016-04-07 05:43:18 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Graceless Wretch is actually what the "fool" means here, and as I love to laugh at both your questions AND answers on R&S...I'll answer:

The phrase "graceless wretch" implies that you will in no way be saved. It's pretty much the ultimate insult of that day, because insulting ones salvation is a judgment only God can give. If you continue the verse, instead of using Bible against Bible...
Psalm 14:1 To the chief Musician, A Psalm of David. The fool hath said in his heart, There is no God. They are corrupt, they have done abominable works, there is none that doeth good.
Sooo...you are corrupt. You openly disavow God, and scorn Him to His face. Why would we not call you a fool? You are ignorant of the evidence around you. You are indeed what the Bible tells you-a fool, because you have said in your heart there is no God.

2007-12-03 03:35:42 · answer #4 · answered by tcjstn 4 · 3 2

Great example of a bible contradiction.

Also note how they keep giving different meanings to the words on it, they say can't take those words literally yet are the same that push for creationism.

2007-12-03 05:05:11 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

You misinterpret the scripture because you pick a verse and quote it out of context. That is called isogesis. You need to learn exegesis prior to commenting on the Bible.

Exegesis is taking all the scriptures concerning a topic and drawing from them getting the proper meaning of what is said after careful study.

Psalms 14:1 and 53:1 reveal the reality of atheism. God doesn't repeat Himself without good cause. They are God's words and intended to mean just what they say. The reason these verses can be applied to atheists is because of what is written in the book of Romans which tells us that "God has put the knowledge of Himself in every man so that none have an excuse not to believe in Him." Romans 1:19-20

Since God put a strong witness to his existence in you and you deny what you know deep within you to be true; God's word says that you are a fool. To speak God's word to you in this respect is not what is referred to in Matthew 5:21-22. It is merely quoting what God has already said.

In essence those who quote these verses are agreeing with God in this matter which is both profitable and wise. Those who reject their conscience in this matter are unwise or as these verses say ---- foolish.

2007-12-03 03:38:12 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

Please don't take verses you don't undersand just to try to prove a point. It also says in the Bible that if we believe Christ died for us, we will have eternal life. We are forgiven for saying "you fool" and in that instance, God is talking about having an argument w/your brother. He is not talking about unbelievers. I agree in Matthew 7 that everyone who hears His word and does not put it into practice is a fool, but that doesn't send someone to hell alone.

If you read the Bible in full, you will understand that all of the verses are intertwined. You cannot just pull something out when it's convenient. Read it and you will see what I mean.

2007-12-03 03:33:28 · answer #7 · answered by ? 6 · 2 4

Satan tried that trick. Using bible verses to trick Jesus into doing something foolish. Jesus reminded him of what the bible also clearly states. His little game came to a crashing hault and left Jesus as he was commanded.

2007-12-03 03:35:56 · answer #8 · answered by oldschoolelf 5 · 2 2

Yes I am aware that I deserve to go to Hell. I have held anger in my heart which makes me a murder, I have lust after women in my heart which makes me an adulterer, I have told lies, I have not put God first in my life which makes me an idol worshiper, the list goes on and on. I break one commandment I am guilty of breaking them all. BUT Jesus also says if I put my faith in HIM and accept Him as Lord and Savior He will forgive all of these sins and prepare a place for me in His Fathers house. He will prepare a place at the dinner table so Him and allow my fellow saints can sit around and talk about how gracious, forgive, and merciful He is. Praise God for His Mercy, Praise him for His forgiveness. He truly is a GREAT GOD!

2007-12-03 03:36:18 · answer #9 · answered by KaYbE follows ΙΗΣΟΥΣ ΧΡΙΣΤΟΣ 3 · 2 3

I always like the following one better than 14

Psalm 2
1Why do the heathen rage, and the people imagine a vain thing?

2The kings of the earth set themselves, and the rulers take counsel together, against the LORD, and against his anointed, saying,

3Let us break their bands asunder, and cast away their cords from us.

4He that sitteth in the heavens shall laugh: the LORD shall have them in derision.

5Then shall he speak unto them in his wrath, and vex them in his sore displeasure.

6Yet have I set my king upon my holy hill of Zion.


The Sword of the Lord slices and dices.

2007-12-03 03:40:03 · answer #10 · answered by David G 6 · 2 1

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