English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

2007-12-02 16:39:52 · 4 answers · asked by realchurchhistorian 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

I am referring to the books in the Catholic Bible.

The Old Testament always included something to do with Jesus Christ. Whether it was His acts as Creator, prophecies about His ministry, or His lineage. Every book in the accepted 39 books of the Old Testament testifies to Jesus Christ as the Messiah. It just was not revealed until the time of Christ.

But do the Apocrypha glorify Jesus at all?

2007-12-02 16:58:22 · update #1

4 answers

Apocrypha is a joke!

A lie can not glorify Jesus.

The Apocrypha:

The Apocrypha was written solely on the behalf of the vatican. It has nothing what so ever to do with God's Word. When refering to the Apocrypha always remember John 8:44. And here's why:

Find one that was written during the day's of Christopher Columbus.

It's a common known fact that land vs. water is 30-70. We also know that God doesn't lie. Refer to John 17:17.

"Sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth."

The Word of God clearly states what He "will do to anyone" that adds or deletes from His Word in Revelation 22:18-19.

"For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book: And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book."

Remember in 2 Peter 1:20-21 were it reads "...no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation." Remember that the vatican has sole ownership of the Apocrypha.

Apocrypha reads that land vs. water is 50-50. As I stated, remember John 8:44

"Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it."

2007-12-02 17:03:02 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

The Books of the Apocrypha are from the period between the so called Old Testament, correctly called the Hebrew Scriptures and the New Testament, therefore they don't contain N.T. references. Are you referring to the Gnostic Gospels?
You can find them everywhere. They were written well after the first century and contain many stories similar to those in the New Testament and some are unique, as Christianity has always been a diverse religion with lots of many view points and ideas, just like today.

2007-12-03 00:53:38 · answer #2 · answered by patrick m 2 · 0 2

As much as in any of the Wisdom and Historical Books of the Old Testament and more than many.
How is Salvation advanced by Ecclesiastes(Qoheleth) or Proverbs?
God uses the whole of Scripture in Mosaic/Apostolic tradition and the original and authoritative Church.

2007-12-03 19:42:53 · answer #3 · answered by James O 7 · 0 1

That depends. Which books. If I'm not mistaken, some of the Books in the Apocrypha don't even metion him.

2007-12-03 00:44:59 · answer #4 · answered by Kris 2 · 1 0

fedest.com, questions and answers