Does the person liable for the initial damage still have to pay my son for the damage to his car caused in the first accident?
2007-12-01 20:57:12 · 7 answers · asked by GEOFFREY S 2 in Cars & Transportation ➔ Insurance & Registration
Doesn't have much luck, does he? My view on this is that if the original accident was accurately assessed at £1000 and didn't involve write off status, then your son should be put back in the position that he was in before the accident which is the basis of insurance. Hence the claimed negotiated at £1000. That is entirely unrelated to the second RTA which I gather has put the car beyond uneconomic repair.
2007-12-01 21:04:03 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Er the question is should your sone have been driving a car which was damaged?
the liability is for the value of the repair not compensation, if the vehicle had been damaged in such a away as to cause damage to either the suspension wheels steering or brakes and your son drove it, should he be found responcible or at fault for the second accident or the insurance company be aware that some mechancal damage was caused in the first accident then your son could face a serious law suite..
Say in the first accident a wheel was buckled or a tyre punctured by means unknown, there could be damage to the frame caused by the impact making the car crab or not sit square on the road.. Heavy braking could then apply torsions to the vehicle which could cause the vehicle to vear off and cause the second accident. The insurance company would say that your sons insurance wasn't valid as the car was no longer as described in the original application. they may not believe it to have been road worthy and will use this clause to avoid paying out... so be aware
2007-12-02 06:36:07 · answer #2 · answered by Philip P 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I used to work in insurance and the simple way to look at it is:
There were 2 incidents, therefore 2 claims will go through regardless of the condition of the car.
I had a guy once who had an accident, it was then stolen and then written off by fire all within a month or so and each claim was done individually. So unless your insurer is weird, they will still have to claim as it is a claim on their policy and they pretend that no matter what, the car is in the condition it was after accident number 1.
2007-12-02 05:21:19 · answer #3 · answered by Ian L 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I would make him walk in future. Was the second accident his fault or that of the other driver? If he is fully Comp I would let the insurance company worry about it. if it is 3rd Party insurance I would suggest he needs legal advice and I would let a half hour interview with a solicitor on the green Card Scheme. Get him to write down what happened without frills or smart ideas designed to somehow get him off the hook because if he does it will costs him more when the truth comes out. Remember the truth is always stronger than a lie white blurred or otherwise .
2007-12-02 15:53:30 · answer #4 · answered by Scouse 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the car belongs to him, free and clear, he should still get the money for the first accident. If there is a loan company involved, they get it.
2007-12-02 05:16:14 · answer #5 · answered by oklatom 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
with that record the question should be "Why the hell do you let him drive?"...still with all these claims his insurance should price him off the road! P.s. where did this happen-i would like to avoid the areas in which he drives!!!!!!!!!
2007-12-02 13:14:11 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
i wouldnt think so as the money paid is for repairs, not compensation.
2007-12-02 05:04:15 · answer #7 · answered by ginger 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋