Jesus the sinner?

Question

The doctrine goes that Jesus took on the sins of the entire world and put them on Himself. So that means that once He died, He went to hell right? Sinners go to hell by just carrying their own sins. But Jesus carried all the sins of men living at that time and men's future sins that they would commit. How could He have made it to heaven with all that sin on Him?

By the way, I am a christian. This question was asked to make you THINK. I believe Jesus went to hell when He died. The sin nature on Him allowed Him legal access into hell, to set those in captivity there free. Nobody is allowed into hell without sin, just as heaven doesn't permit sin to enter in.

djm, let me ask you a simple question. If 'hell' is translated grave in the text describing Jesus's descension into hell, then why did the Bible say He was put into a borrowed tomb? What does a tomb have to do with a grave? Jesus was never put into a grave. So obviously hell is not translated 'grave' in this passage.

Hey, Isaiah. I got a question for YOU. When Jesus rose from the dead, the first person He appeared to was Mary Magdalene. When she tried to touch Him, He responded, 'Do not touch me, for I have not yet ascended to the father' (John 20:17). Also Acts 2:27 states 'Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.' This is Jesus talking. So if Jesus didn't go to hell when He died, and He had not yet ascended to the father, where WAS He during those three days and nights? (try not to put words into God's mouth, please).

Answer 1

He didn't take everyone's sin into himself, and I don't think he died on the cross.

Answer 2

Jesus suffering for our sins ended when He died.

Jesus went down to the Air Conditioned part of hell to rescue those imprisoned there by Satan.

The Air Condtioned part of hell is also known as Paradise.

This is where Jesus said he would meet the thief who repented.

This is also known as Abraham's Bossom in Luke 16:19-31.

Jesus only went there long enough to rescue them.

Perhaps He was there all three days and nights from when He died on Good Wednesday til He rose on Sunday morning.

Pastor Art

Answer 3

The grave could not hold the prefect Christ who died to pay the penalty of sin for us.
The penalty of sin is death. Christ took on the sins of the world and yet he himself was the perfect God.
Hell is simply the grave.
Jesus did not go to the fiery lake which does not exist till after Hell is thrown into the lake of fire.

Edit Never said the literal resting place of Christ was Hell.
If Hell is the literal grave it would be every cemetry and grave.
I am not speaking of a physical grave. All physical graves are not thrown into the lake of fire.

Answer 4

There is NO scriptural reference to Jesus visiting hell after His crucifixion. Not one. That takes a lot of imagination and twisting of scripture.

STOP trying to put words in God's mouth. He can speak quite clearly without you.

Jesus took all those sins to the grave and left them there when He arose on the third day.

Answer 5

The reason He could be full payment for our sins, is because HE never sinned. When He died on the cross , He took our debt for our sin upon Him. He has victory over sin , death and hell-
HOW? By being our risen Savior

Answer 6

"Born of the Virgin Mary, suffered under Pontious Pilate, was Crucified, Died, and was Buried. He decended into Hell. On the third day he rose again, in fulfillment of the Scriptures."

Nicene creed.

If I, an atheist, understand this teaching, how is it that you seem to think yourself smart enough to even think to question it?

You have a lot of study to go before you should open your mouth again against a religion you clearly don't know. Christianity is false -- this much is true. But if you can't even get christianity right, how can you expect to prove it wrong?

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Yes, I know you're a Christian. No need to announce to the world that you're a fool though.

Keep it to yourself.

Answer 7

He took the sins of the world, but He did not do them. His death was a payment for the people so that they may be spared from eternal death, or hell. He did not necessarily take the sins of the world, His death was a payment for the people's sins.

Answer 8

What is meant by "took on the sins of the world" is that Jesus Christ, as Redeemer of the whole human race, offered His sufferings and death to God as a fitting sacrifice in satisfaction for the sins of men, and regained for them the right to be children of God and heirs of heaven. (A redeemer is one who pays in order to get back something lost. He gives satisfaction, compensation, for an offense or injury done to another.)
No creature could, of himself, make satisfaction for sin. Sin offends an infinite God, and therefore would need infinite satisfaction. Therefore Someone Infinite, Jesus Christ, had to offer that satisfaction.
Jesus Christ suffered and died as man; as God He could neither suffer nor die. He suffered excruciatingly in order to make full reparation for sin. "The Lord has laid on him the iniquity of us all" (Is. 53:6)
It was the effects of sin that were carried by Him, not the sin itself.

Answer 9

no. the reasoning is specious.
1. Jesus, although he took upon himself our sins, did not himself become sinful. he became the sin bearer, but he did not sin.
2. his descent into hell was not a punishment for his sins; he descended into hell to proclaqim victory over sin, death and the devil by his death on the cross.

Answer 10

well thats like you offering to pay all my debt it doesn't mean you caused the debt but you are willing to pay it and if you have sinned and confess Jesus as your personal Lord and Saviour He will save you