Is Jesus really sin?

Question

2 Cor. 5:21 (KJV)
For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

So Jaycee - you think he is not sin and we are not righteous?

John E. and for a brief moment we are righteous?

Are you sure the sin is laying on top of Jesus and he does not become sin? At what point does the sacrifice for sin stop being the sin sacrifice. I assumed never. The sacrifice is the sin forever in both old and new testaments.

Surely Lion you Jest.

Eartha - I am sure you're getting an A in Bible School - you regurgitate what they tell you nicely. But for thinking I give you a D.

Answer 1

What this is saying, in my belief, is that the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all (Isaiah 53:6) and in that way Jesus became sin for us. "Who knew no sin" refers to Christ who never sinned once in his entire mortal life, but took upon himself our sins and the punishment for our sins in the Atonement to enable us to be clean and free of our sins if we will but repent and believe on Jesus Christ as the Son of God and Savior of mankind. The last part, "that we might be made the righteousness of God in him" means that if we establish a covenant relationship with Christ we are "in" Christ and as long as we are in Christ we take on the righteousness of Christ and are in a redeemed state so long as we endure to the end with faith in the Savior, repenting of our sins.

"The statement that Jesus was made "to be sin for us" is difficult to understand. There are two interpretations of this verse. One interpretation holds that God made Christ to be "sin" by imputing man sin's to Him. The second interpretation is that "to be sin" refers to an alternate meaning of hamartia found in the Greek Old Testament the apostles and early church used, that means Christ's death was a "sin-offering." (1)

Answer 2

One of the issues that you are having is that you are trying to use the KJV. If you read the Preface, written by the translators of it, a person is NOT supposed to use the KJV for dogmatic or scholarly pursuit. The translators changed the text to make it SOUND good when it was read aloud.

Though in many new editions this preface disclaimer is usually omitted, so Christians that use the KJV can claim its the ONLY true version. Hehheeee.

Another issue that you have is that you are looking at a teaching of a 'false prophet'. Accordng to the Laws of God, Deuteronomy 13, 'Paul' would be a 'false prophet', since he not only says that a person doesn't have to follow the Laws of God but he also advocates an OTHER god--'Jesus'. In the same law Deuteronomy 13, an OTHER god is defined as one that a person personally has not known or a god that was unknown to a person's fore fathers.

Which not following the Laws of God, would also be a contradiction of the teachings of 'Jesus'.

Mat 19:17 “Why do you ask me about what is good?” Jesus replied. “There is only one who is good. If you want to enter life, obey the commandments.”

Mat 5:18-19 I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. Anyone who breaks one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven.

One should also note that 'Jesus' being sin-less is a precept of Christians, not proveable, since the vast majority of 'Jesus's" life is not chronicalled within the biblical gospels. For all we really know, he might have been a mass murderer or a homosexual...heheheeee.

Lastly, 'Paul' is just restating old canaanite mythos and ritual practice. In Hosea and Habakkuk, we learn of the 'sons of Ephraim'--the Canaanites, they venerated a stick of wood, offered up human sacrifice upon high places--like MT Calvary, used human sacrifice for the forgiveness of sin even going so far as eating the flesh and blood of their sacrifice similar to the ritual cannibalism of communion, and relished in their sin, just as Christians do, and ALL are listed in the scriptures as ABOMINATIONS to god.

Hosea 13:2 Human Sacrifice---ABOMINATION

Jeremiah 32:35 Sacrificing upon High Places, like Mt. Calvary---Abomination

Deuteronomy 4:15-16, Defining ‘Jesus’ as god--ABOMINATION

One should also note that Ephraim was the son of Joseph, born in the city of Bethel, and 'also' called the 'right hand of the father."

Hab 2:16, the cup from the LORD's right hand is coming around to you, and disgrace will cover your glory.

Ecclesiastes 1:9 what has been will be again, what has been done will be done again; there is nothing new under the sun.

The use of quotation marks around the names of 'Paul' and 'Jesus' are intentional, since they are Latin translational terms, not the actual names of people that would have lived.

Answer 3

It means he took all of the sins of the whole world on himself. The sins were nailed to the cross w/ Jesus. He did that so we might have eternal life.

Answer 4

The verse is saying when Jesus died on the cross he paid the sin debt for all people. Jesus who knew no sin took on himself our sin and if we belief Him our sin will be forgiven.

Answer 5

Jesus was not sin. Jesus took our sins upon himself when He died, but He was not sin. He was perfect. He conquered sin in death and was raised into Heaven.

Answer 6

He took sin upon the cross...to redeem us from the penalty of sin. The wages of sin..is death.

Answer 7

your post basically means that when he died he took all of every ones sins with him.

& Yes in that term of the Quote he is sin!

Answer 8

It means that God the Father put all the sins of mankind on Jesus that Jesus Christ could die in our place for our sins and if we had sense enough we would humble ourselves and ask Him to forgive us and Save. Jesus' blood was shed for the remission of our sins. The blood washed away the sins.
Jesus was without but He died for yours and for mine. Amen

Romans 3:25
Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;
Romans 3:24-26 (in Context) Romans 3 (Whole Chapter)
Hebrews 9:22
And almost all things are by the law purged with blood; and without shedding of blood is no remission.
Hebrews 9:21-23 (in Context) Hebrews 9 (Whole Chapter)

2 Corinthians 5:14-21 (King James Version)

14For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead:

15And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.

16Wherefore henceforth know we no man after the flesh: yea, though we have known Christ after the flesh, yet now henceforth know we him no more.

17Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new.

18And all things are of God, who hath reconciled us to himself by Jesus Christ, and hath given to us the ministry of reconciliation;

19To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.

20Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech you by us: we pray you in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God.

21For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

Answer 9

No we are. Jesus was made sin but did not remain sin.

Answer 10

bad quote for the first him isn't "Him" so it isn't referencing the divine one. I don't know the quote so you need to add more to see what him is referencing.