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The English line "lead us not into temptation" is actually a bad translation, as God does not and would not actively "lead us" into temptation, a notion that would make Him the Author of evil. Though the Pater has been prayed this way in English for hundreds of years and there is no need to change it now, one must keep in mind that a more literal translation would be "allow us not to succumb to temptation." James 1:13-14: "Let no man, when he is tempted, say that he is tempted by God. For God is not a tempter of evils: and He tempteth no man. But every man is tempted by his own concupiscence, being drawn away and allured."

2007-12-01 03:49:49 · 28 answers · asked by Isabella 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Latin Vulgate
Douay-Rheims Bible

Epistle Of Saint James
Chapter 1
12 Blessed is the man that endureth temptation; for when he hath been proved, he shall receive a crown of life, which God hath promised to them that love him. 13 Let no man, when he is tempted, say that he is tempted by God. For God is not a tempter of evils, and he tempteth no man. 14 But every man is tempted by his own concupiscence, being drawn away and allured.

2007-12-01 04:19:58 · update #1

zionist white devil -

"God tempted"... God tempteth no man to evil, James 1. 13; but by trial and experiment maketh known to the world, and to ourselves, what we are, as here by this trial the singular faith and obedience of Abraham was made manifest.

2007-12-01 04:23:44 · update #2

Lynn C -
Excellent answer..... you understood what was really being asked.....thank you !

2007-12-01 05:05:49 · update #3

28 answers

Interesting commentary in Wikipedia:

"And lead us not into temptation"

Interpretations of the penultimate petition of the prayer — not to be led by God into peirasmos — vary considerably. Peirasmos can mean temptation, or just test of character. Traditionally it has been translated temptation. Since this would seem to imply that God leads people to sin, individuals uncomfortable with that implication read it as test of character. There are generally two arguments for this reading. First, it may be an eschatological appeal against unfavorable Last Judgment, though nowhere in literature of the time, not even in the New Testament, is the term peirasmos connected to such an event. The other argument is that it acts as a plea against hard tests described elsewhere in scripture, such as those of Job. Yet, this would depart heavily from Jewish practice of the time when pleas were typically made, during prayer, to be put through such tests.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lord's_Prayer#.22And_lead_us_not_into_temptation.22

It seems to me that Jesus' petition is a good one, whether it is translated temptation or test (and a temptation is a sort of moral test). All good teachers give tests to find out if their students have learned, and God is our greatest teacher.

I think the implication is that we are asking God for help to be faithful under temptation. This would require strengthening the imagination to assess the consequences of temptations, which seem attractive at first.

It also implies a strengthening of our faith in the answer God would have us give, which may not seem all that reasonable at the moment.

Finally, it implies a request for greater will power to freely choose God's way, and not be to swept along by the world, transitory desires, or emotions.

Cheers,
Bruce

2007-12-01 07:06:23 · answer #1 · answered by Bruce 7 · 3 0

A couple of things to observe:

1) Remember that this is the prayer of the child to the Father, realizing the child may fall prey to the Evil One (the next phrase in the prayer).

2) The Hebrew-Greek Key Study Bible has an annotation that the verb is in the aorist subjunctive used as an imperative--in other words, "please don't let me enter into the temptation". This is a close parallel to the "allow us not to succumb . . ." that you're referencing.

3) Regardless of the translation (and there are many, quite acceptable) it is important to stay away from what would keep us from fellowship with the Father. It wouldn't make sense to pray "lead us not into temptation" or a similar request, then go out and look for a temptation to fall into!

2007-12-01 04:37:51 · answer #2 · answered by Brother Jonathan 7 · 1 0

I don't recite the Lord's prayer because I need to ask and talk from me. What I need for the day and that I'm always thankful and full of love for the Father. About that temptation part, what I pray to God is, "keep all evil and everything connected to evil away from me and my loved ones. If any evil man may cross my path today, let him be blind towards me and pass me by; but if you see a person that I can touch with love today, lead that person to me. Have your Holy Spirit upon me and my loved ones all
through our the day.

2007-12-01 04:23:19 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

As for the translation word for word translation is almost impossible to understand for the average person, and often totally loses the sense with which it was written, and as for the Bible translations, they are very close because the oldest copies of the Bible were written in Greek, a language in use during Jesus' life and after, it just depends on which version you have. So don't go talking about how badly it is translated when most of you have never seen the Greek and Latin versions.

2007-12-01 04:05:40 · answer #4 · answered by afbdrummer 2 · 2 0

When you ask the Father to "lead us not into temptation" you must look to the many things you say. Buy saying this, you acknowledge that you follow the Father and that He leads you. By your entreaty to lead not somewhere, you imply that your expectation is to be led elsewhere, just as you would implore a rescuer, "Take me away from this terrible place" instead of "take me to a safe hospital"
Does "take me from this terrible place" insinuate that the rescuer put you there? No.
The whole line is, "Lead us not into temptation but, deliver us from evil." That is the entire phrase with the whole intent and meaning. Con-text= with all words.

2007-12-01 05:06:15 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

The simple answer is ‘No’ When the word LORD appears in the KJV of the Bible it is the translator’s way of telling us the Hebrew word is יהוה - yehôvâh - yeh-ho-vaw' this is one of the names by which God has revelled himself. Since the New Testament tells us repeatedly that • God always has claimed that Jesus was His Son. • Jesus always claimed that God was his Father. • The Holy Spirit is and always has been the power by which God operates. • They are Three different entities not one. • Two of the entities having a Father and Son relationship. You have to accept the following statement Jesus about himself John 14:28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I. The Apostle Paul wrote to the Corinthian church stating Jesus would be subject to God. 1 Corinthians 15:23-28 KJV 23 But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming. 24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power. 25 For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet. 26 The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death. 27 For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him. 28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all. And many more similar saying of Jesus. The following declarations by God are – Matthew 3:17 NIV And a voice from heaven said, "This is my Son, whom I love; with him I am well pleased." Mark 1:11 NIV And a voice came from heaven: "You are my Son, whom I love; with you I am well pleased." Luke 3:22 NIV and the Holy Spirit descended on him in bodily form like a dove. And a voice came from heaven: "You are my Son, whom I love; with you I am well pleased." The trinity was dreamt up by a council of Roman Catholic leaders some 300 to 400 years after the death of Jesus Christ. Finally formulated into a creed which was written after Jesus died, rose from the dead and ascended into heaven. The Roman Catholics leaders after lots of arguments and a split in the community (Hence Roman and Orthodox churches) finally produced the Nicene Creed which formed the basis of this false belief. The trinty has no part in 1st century Christian teaching. Put simply the Bible teaches that Jesus is the Son of God and that God is the Father of Jesus. The Holy Spirit is how the power, by which God operates, is described. .

2016-04-07 01:43:33 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I disagree with your premise that "one must keep in mind..."

That said...Your argument is based on flawed logic. I'm not suggesting that you're incorrect; merely that you did not make a sound argument. You criticize a TRANSLATION but your argument is about CONTENT. You have not eliminated the possibility that it was translated correctly and the original prayer was also contrary to James 1:13-14. As I'm sure you know, the Bible is full of contradictions. It it not beyond the scope of possibility that the English translation you speak of is correct and that the Prayer itself is at odds with the verse you cite.

Also, your interpretation of the English words is also incorrect, I believe. It is merely requesting that God lead us away from temptation. That's all.

I think you might be a bit too wrapped up in this.

Note that each answer that does not agree with or kiss up to the questioner has a thumbs down. That's not very Christian of you, hun.

2007-12-01 03:57:03 · answer #7 · answered by snoopy 5 · 0 4

I do not believe God would do that either, Satan would, but essentially we need to be asking for Gods protection from falling into evil, even though God already knows our needs, and our hearts, we should always be on a personal level with The Lord.

2007-12-01 03:55:10 · answer #8 · answered by Lynn C 5 · 3 0

Even Christ was tempted by the devil. . . . not by God.

Gospel According to Saint Luke
Chapter 4

12 And Jesus answering, said to him: It is said: Thou shalt not tempt the Lord thy God.
13 And all the temptation being ended, the devil departed from him for a time.

2007-12-01 04:39:04 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

Here's some more food for thought. The Greek is in present tense personal for the whole thing. All of the future tense wording is a mistranslation. Now, reread it knowing that.

2007-12-01 03:54:28 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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