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to die as a sacrifice for the salvation of mankind since Jesus inherited the original sin from Mary? isn't that what Christians teach; that children inherit the original sin from his/her parents? is it only right to conclude that Jesus was a sinner too?

no rude comments please, since I am asking a serious question.

2007-11-30 17:35:27 · 5 answers · asked by Ťango 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

so can people conclude that Jesus being God doesn't make sense at all. there you go. if Christians only use their reasoning and logic they will be understood. the idea of Jesus being God is ridiculous.

2007-11-30 17:45:54 · update #1

5 answers

I agree with you man. It's like God created everyone. Then he is going to punish the wrongdoers and at the same time he is going to send his son out in the world so he cannot punish everyone. What is wrong here? First he created Adam then he uses his own creation to be born? Why couldnt Mary be also born without the father. Why can't he save the drama and say. I FORGIVE YOU ALL.

2007-11-30 18:25:29 · answer #1 · answered by iam_not_that_bad 2 · 1 1

That is precisely the reason it was necessary for Jesus to not have a human father. Being born of a virgin, He bypassed the normally closed system of human procreation, thus injecting the innocent vitality of his divine nature into human nature, thus being born alive to God in the spirit, unlike every other child of Adam and Eve. By this means, the "genetic defect" of original sin was cured in just this one human individual, opening for the first time the possibility of a valid human representative Who had no inclination to sin - at all.

Edit:

Let me see. The evidence you have presented to the “court” thus far is simply this: You do not understand it, therefore it is illogical. Is everything you don't understand illogical? Do you understand gravity? If not, then it must not be true, right? But you say, I know it is true even if I don't fully understand it, because I and everyone else experiences it. OK. Jesus rose from the dead, an historical fact for which there is substantial evidence. Those who trust in Him will find Him quite real, even if they don't fully understand Him. Logically, would God raise someone from the dead who made a false claim about being God? Don't think so. So, as in a court of law, you have failed to make your case. The witnesses have testified that Jesus both said He was God, and that He rose from the dead. You have neither discredited the witnesses, nor proven their testimony on either point false. Your case is thus dismissed as frivolous.

2007-11-30 17:59:41 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Hello, Tango:

Catholic theology of the immaculate conception does not mean a "virgin birth", but that God created Mary perfect, so she could be the "perfect mother of a sinless God-child."

However, Christ actually assumed sinful humanity and was tempted in all ways as we are. When He assumed a human form with all its propensities to sin, yet did not yield, He was still sinless. You see, Jesus said If you had no knowledge, you have no sin, so the priests He was talking to did not carry Adam's guilt.

So, mankind did not inherit Adam's sin, but this entire planet is under the death sentence of Adam's rebellion.

1 corinthians 15 tells us that in one man's sin, ALL DIE, and so in one man's righteousness, ALL WILL LIVE AGAIN. That means ALL, including the wicked. But, there are two resurrections, one for the righteous and the other for those transgressors to face the judgment seat of God and therefore condemnation.

God knew Christians would become confused on this topic, and hid the plan of salvation in a Bible code. You can break it yourself at http://abiblecode.tripod.com

Shalom, peace in Jesus, Ben Yeshua

2007-11-30 17:45:45 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

You need to go back to Genesis to understand. Eve was not given the commands that Adam was given. While she still came under the condemnation of sin, the woman is not the sex that transmits sin, it is the man. Since Mary was made pregnant by God, Jesus would be born sinless.

2007-11-30 17:47:47 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Because God insured He would be born without any sin. That He would not inherit any sin.

Let me ask you this. Catholics teach Mary had to be sinless for Jesus to be sinless. Then wouldn't Mary's parents have had to be sinless for her to be sinless? And then their parents would have to be sinless. This eventually gets us all the way back to the Ark and Noah. Since everyone is descended from Noah and Noah would have to be sinless for all his descendants down to Mary to be sinless then everyone in the world would have to be sinless. This is why the doctrine of Mary being sinless just does not make sense in the least.

EDIT: Actually believing Jesus is God is one of the most important tenants of Christianity. No true Christian denies the deity of Christ.

2007-11-30 17:42:21 · answer #5 · answered by Bible warrior 5 · 1 0

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