"Tongues" means languages in the original Greek, so why can't people who claim this ability stand in front of the United Nations building and speak to ambassadors in different languages as these diplomats go to and fro?
2007-11-30 13:24:28 · 23 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Of course, it's a load of hooey.
2007-11-30 13:28:35 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 6⤊ 1⤋
Speaking in tongues was a special ability given through the holy spirit to some disciples in the early Christian congregation that enabled them to preach or otherwise glorify God in a language other than their own.
Does ecstatic speech in a language that a person never learned prove that he/she has the holy spirit?Or can the ability to "speak in tongues" come from a source other than the true God? The Bible answers:(1John4:1)
"1Dear friends, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from God, because many false prophets have gone out into the world.
Among those'speaking in tongues' today are Pentacostals, Baptists, Roman Catholics, Episcoplians,Methodists,Lutherans, and Presbyteriansand many more. Jesus said that the holy spirit would 'guide his disciples into all the truth'(John16:13) Do the members of each of these religions believe that others who also 'speak in tongues' have been guided into 'all the truth'? How could that be, since they are not all in agreement? What spirit is making it possible for them tp 'speak in tongues'?
Is the 'speaking in tongues'that is done today the same as that done by first-century Christians?
In the first century, the miraculous gifts of the spirit, including the ability to 'speak in tongues', verified that God's favour had shifted from the Jewish system of worship to the newly established Christian congregation.(Hebresw2:2-4) Since that objective was accomplished in the first century, is it necessary to prove the same thing again and again in our day?
In the first century, the ability to 'speak in tongues' gave the impetus to the international work of witnessing that Jesus had commissioned his followers to do(Acts1:8 ; 2:1-11) Is that how those who 'speak in tongues' use that ability today?
In the first century, when Christians 'spoke in tongues', what they said had meaning to people who knew those languages.(Acts2:4,8) Tioday, is it not true that 'speaking in tongues' usually involves an ecstatic outburst of unintelligible sounds?
In the first century, the Bible shows, congregations were to limit the 'speaking in tongues' tp two or three persons who might do that at any given meeting; they were to do it "each in turn," and if there was no interpreter present they were to keep silent(1Corinthians14:27,28) Is that what is being done today? It is obviously not the same spirit operating, that was operating in the first century.
2007-11-30 22:51:31 · answer #2 · answered by I speak Truth 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
What an odd question but heartfelt. There is no precedent for speaking in ancient Greek at the UN. And there is a small but significant idea behind "speaking in tongues". Imagine the difficulty ancient people had when translating the writings of those proficient enough to actually speak and write down the stories and histories of those they represented. No small task.
All that is lost in translation is everything if you don't get it right. Ancient "historians" were the servants of kings and kings demanded good history, even where the Bible came to be concerned.
But back to your premise. Speaking in tongues can be seen as no more than the authors' inability to decipher another language. Today we are able to experience people with little more than the ability to preform so to get the attention they need to validate their inablility to talk to God, as if we could.
2007-11-30 21:40:55 · answer #3 · answered by Lizbiz 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
As a minister. I do not think that the modern version of speaking in tongues. I think the bible is speaking of the various languages in the world.
2007-11-30 21:36:08 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
I guess it could happen, I mean, why would God stop miracles from happening. BUT if there is no reason for it, and no one to interpret, then its a bunch of phony baloney. I am Mormon, and have heard many missionaries report having an easier time learning a language while preparing for their mission than they did in school. I guess that could be seen as an example, but it wasn't sporadic, it was help in learning.
2007-11-30 21:36:13 · answer #5 · answered by KneeKnee 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because you have hit on one of the BS urban myths of our time--it is like a lot of the "spiritual" focus of some of the '60s civil rights icons-kinda stuck in that time. Of course it is phony, give me a break!!! They can't stand in front of the UN because they speak gibberish not tongues.
Speaking in tongues means that everyone understands them. If this doe not happen, the speaker is a fraud.
2007-11-30 21:33:37 · answer #6 · answered by LA Dave 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋
"tongues" in the Bible doesn't mean languages in the original Greek. However, the answer to your question is no. We can truly have the HG evidenced by speaking in other tongues as God gives the utterance. Are there "phoneys" in the world? Sure.
2007-11-30 21:32:15 · answer #7 · answered by paula r 7 · 1⤊ 3⤋
i can only speak for my self i prayed to the father through our lord jesus for authentic tongues and its interpertation. i recieved my answer that night a 130 am. a voice spoke to me chaka tob maleka latter the next day i spoke to a friend about what the spirit had spoke to me . he understood hebrew which the language was it ment wait upon the goodness of the lord. there is your true authentic tongues and its interpratation.
2014-10-08 12:52:37 · answer #8 · answered by Ronald 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They will speak with new tongues, does not really equate to what the seers of the old were, we have the Rauch Ha Kodesh rememberance now!
2007-11-30 23:23:59 · answer #9 · answered by hearingtheword 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Most of what they are speaking is total gibberish. I attended a pentacostal church where they spoke in tongues and non of it was understandable as any kind of known language. A friend of mine who was a member showed me in private one day how he did it and he just made stuff up. I've had a lot of experience with frauds of all kinds in religion.
2007-11-30 21:30:48 · answer #10 · answered by Stainless Steel Rat 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
The original Koine Greek word also meant was we call today "glossolalia." Speaking in tongues is scriptural, so I do believe it can be real.
Now whether everybody who babbles aloud in Church is really doing that because of the movement of the Holy Spirit.... that's another question.
2007-11-30 21:27:38 · answer #11 · answered by Acorn 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋