Tons of people come here and pull out bits and pieces of scriptures to say that God condemns gay people and catholics and everybody who thinks different but they only use the parts of the Bible they want. Right there in Psalm 14:1, I found it. "There is no God." Aint that as plain as day?
If they can pick the parts of the Bible they want to use, can I do the same thing to prove my political agenda is from God? (Who the Bible says in Ps. 14:1 doesn't exist...)
2007-11-30 12:49:12 · 39 answers · asked by WhiteDove 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
lol Excellent spoof! You GO, girlfriend! But you get lots of crap about this one, but thanks for it anyway.
You're right: many fundamentalists say everything in the Bible must be read literally, with or without context, so that must mean there is no God.
2007-11-30 12:51:31 · answer #1 · answered by Acorn 7 · 1⤊ 4⤋
It is perfectly clear that Colossians 1:15 is talking about Jesus having been created by God before all other things were created. Rev. 3:14, John 1:18 and Prov. 8:22-30 support this. And, after all, even trinitarians admit that Jesus is God's Son - the Son OF God. However, some trinitarians insist that the literal "firstborn of all creation" describing Jesus at Col. 1:15 really means "the pre-eminent one over all creation." Prototokos ("first-born"), literally means "born first" - see Young's Analytical Concordance - or Strong's Exhaustive Concordance. The New Testament in the King James Version and most other trinitarian translations use this meaning throughout. Here are all the instances of prototokos in the NT: Matt. 1:25 (King James only); Luke 2:7; Ro. 8:29; Col. 1:15; Col. 1:18; Heb. 1:5, 6; Heb. 11:28; Heb. 12:23; Rev. 1:5 (compare Col. 1:18). NONE OF THEM CLEARLY MEANS "PRE-EMINENT". Not only do all of these scriptures that use prototokos have either the certain or the most probable meaning of "first-born," but we rarely (if ever) see any Bible translate them as anything but "first-born" or its literal equivalent except at Col. 1:15-18 where the actual meaning would disprove a trinity concept! A few trinitarian translations force an improper interpretation for prototokos at this scripture only (e.g. NIV, NEB). The use of the word prototokos in the Bible *ALWAYS* MEANS ONE WHO HAS COME INTO EXISTENCE FIRST IN TIME - before all the rest of his "brothers" - the beginning (arkhe) of his father's creative (or procreative) works. - see pp. 77-88 in Dr. Jason BeDuhn's Truth in Translation, University Press of America, 2003. Yet some trinitarians, however, still insist that the Biblical use of the Greek prototokos can, sometimes, mean "pre-eminent" because they dare not admit the obvious, true, literal meaning of Col. 1:15.
2016-05-27 01:12:29 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Great! First you blame tons of people for coming here and pulling out bits and pieces of scriptures and only using a those parts of the bible to justify what they want. Then, in your very next sentence , you go ahead and do the same thing by pulling out a portion of the scipture from Psalms 14 v 1b to say that there is no God! Taking sciptures out of context and cutting out portions to make it says what you want to say is not justifiable in any case.
The entire verse should be read as one and that is "The fool says in his heart, "There is no God..." " What is written is in the Bible did not say that there is no God but that "The fool says that there is no God". Since now, you are the one saying that there is no God, what does that make you?
Come on, you should be able to see what you are..... give you some help... it is a 4 lettered word starting with "F" and ending with "L". Psalms 14 v 1 describes you to a tee! Cheers!
2007-11-30 13:17:29 · answer #3 · answered by Seng Kim T 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
People do what you're saying a lot and these people are not true Christians. The part about the gays, if read in detail, will show that the homosexuals he's referring to were all prostitutes and they caused a lot of problems. It was a different time with different circumstances. I'm not sure that God would condemn the lifestyle of homosexuals today. I have no way of knowing but my guess would be no. Too many people don't look far enough into the Bible to understand it. More Christians than not aren't really following what the Bible tells them to follow. They're picking the parts that are easy for them personally to follow. That's not the way to live. They're making a mockery of the religion. If it weren't for these people, Christianity would be more highly rated.
2007-11-30 13:02:25 · answer #4 · answered by ♥Kym♥ 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
What, did you miss the FIRST part of that passage that says, A FOOL IN HIS HEART SAYS, there is no God.
Not only in Psalm 14:1 but also Psalm 53:1. I use that passage and the '...there is no God' part at the beginning of each year of my 3rd/4th grade Sunday school classes. Even THEY are smart enough to know...you have to read THE FIRST PART, too. By taking parts of passages or even a WHOLE passage out of context, we can 'prove' almost anything.
God DOES condemn homosexuality. It's called an ABOMINATION and it's NOT taken out of context.
I hope you're a bit smarter to think that you CAN prove things by twisting God's Word and taking it out of context. If not, be prepared to be called what is in the first part of Psalm 14:1 and 53:1.
(Believer since 1964, Bible teacher since 1988)
2007-11-30 13:29:40 · answer #5 · answered by AmericanPatriot 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
well first of all when you read the bible, you dont take just phrases of it without reading the whole chapter or at least the whole verse. so psalms says "the senseless one has said...... but then if you read the next verse clearly it explains that god really exists. so here it is another verse of the bible which says "That people may know that you, whose name is Jehovah, You alone are the Most High over all the earth" psalms 83:18. be very careful when you read the bible and even more when you make a false statement about it.
psalms 14:1 - 2
1 The senseless one has said in his heart:
“There is no Jehovah.”
They have acted ruinously, they have acted detestably in [their] dealing.
There is no one doing good.
2 As for Jehovah, he has looked down from heaven itself upon the sons of men,
To see whether there exists anyone having insight, anyone seeking Jehovah.
2007-11-30 13:06:37 · answer #6 · answered by miriam 2 · 3⤊ 0⤋
You are quite right. Many people do exactly this and it is wrong. And since two wrongs still don't make a right, it would be just as wrong for you.
One exception I have to take with your statement, however. I don't know what pieces of the Bible you have seen regarding homosexuality, but, if you have read the Bible, then you should know that the Bible is not at all ambiguous regarding homsexuality and it being a sin. It is extremely clear on this point. You don't have to agree, but don't pretend it doesn't say so.
2007-11-30 12:57:19 · answer #7 · answered by karate 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Psalm 14
1 The fool says in his heart,
"There is no God."
They are corrupt, their deeds are vile;
there is no one who does good.
2 The LORD looks down from heaven
on the sons of men
to see if there are any who understand,
any who seek God.
3 All have turned aside,
they have together become corrupt;
there is no one who does good,
not even one.
4 Will evildoers never learn—
those who devour my people as men eat bread
and who do not call on the LORD ?
5 There they are, overwhelmed with dread,
for God is present in the company of the righteous.
6 You evildoers frustrate the plans of the poor,
but the LORD is their refuge.
7 Oh, that salvation for Israel would come out of Zion!
When the LORD restores the fortunes of his people,
let Jacob rejoice and Israel be glad!
2007-11-30 13:00:30 · answer #8 · answered by Mosa A 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
You condemn Christianity because we condemn a lifestyle. Let me ask you a question, if those that practice beastiality were to "come out of the closet", would you support their lifestyle? Guess what, the Bible condemns that, also! The Bible says that a man should not have sex with a woman on her period. Will you be an advocate for "bloody sex"?
Please forgive me the graphic nature.
GOD bless
2007-11-30 12:59:42 · answer #9 · answered by Exodus 20:1-17 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
hey, if you don't want to believe in God than don't. It's your choice. But pls don't try and use the Bible as your excuse for it...that's just sad. If you read Psalm 14:1 like you said....well, you've seem to have left some of it out...but let me refresh your memory on that verse:
"Only fools say in their hearts, 'There is no God'. They are corrupt, and their actions are evil; not one of them does good!"
Ps. 14:1 NLT
yeah, you left out just a little bit I think.
Believe as you will my friend. We Christians always need someone to pray for.... :)
2007-11-30 13:04:31 · answer #10 · answered by ~Dave~ 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
What people are doing is they are using scripture out of context. This is not right, and it can give wrong ideas. What you must do is read everything the scripture says. Not just one verse at a time. Just taking a few words is like saying you can go to the declaration of Independence, take a few words out, and say it is right to kill someone.
2007-11-30 12:54:28 · answer #11 · answered by Disco243 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋