Just curious?
2007-11-30 08:01:04 · 20 answers · asked by ? 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Why the lack of direct answers?
It's not like there isn't plenty of OT reference for stoning people.
2007-11-30 08:08:23 · update #1
Probably. Given the time period I probably wouldn't have known any better. What is concerning is 2500 years later and there are still people that don't know any better.
ps. the answer with the possum story....WTF is wrong with your boyfriend? There is never a reason to beat an animal to death with anything.
2007-11-30 08:09:18 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Ahh, I knew I'd read the misconception on the Torah.
Stonings were VERY rare after being tried in a Jewish court. In fact, if it happened once every hundred years, it was considered a bloody court.
Contrary to the impressions given in the christian book, Jews were not given edicts to go around and stone people like Paul supposedly was.
A person had to be brought before the Sanhedrin which was the Jewish court. I think for a capital case there had to be 26 judges.
In order to testify against someone, you could not in any way be associated with that person. Nor could you be associated with other witnesses. Each and every witness had to testify exactly the same on each and every detail of the crime.
Before being stoned, a person had to be warned before committing the crime not to do it. The witnesses had to be watching specifically for the crime at the time it occurred.
As you can see, it's virtually impossible to get a conviction in a Jewish court.
In fact, most prosecuters today will not want a Jew on a jury because they know the strict standards we set for conviction. It would be virtually impossible to get a conviction if I were on a jury as I would follow the Torah on my vote and not secular laws.
2007-11-30 16:27:26 · answer #2 · answered by Gershon b 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think the Iranian State sentenced someone to death by stoning four months ago...
2007-11-30 16:06:55 · answer #3 · answered by CanadianFundamentalist 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. People did not have to participate in the stonings, just those who had a beef with the convicted person. Now, I would participate in getting stoned...
2007-11-30 16:09:03 · answer #4 · answered by magix151 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No, because it is not biblically demanded of individuals. It was demanded of the jewish government to execute judgements, not the people. Just like it is in our society, individuals do not have the right to cast judgement, but the government has the right.
2007-11-30 16:42:49 · answer #5 · answered by wiley16350 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Did someone say that piece of halibut was good enough for Jehovah??
Where's my fake beard? I gotta go and buy some stones.
2007-11-30 16:06:38 · answer #6 · answered by Sister blue eyes 6 · 3⤊ 0⤋
2500 years ago? They do that now in some parts of this messed up world we live in!
2007-11-30 16:04:46 · answer #7 · answered by Dan H 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Sure, but we don't. We live in 2007 and Islam demands conversion, dhimmitude(taxation) or death to the infidel(you and me). Try selling parity to a mind numbed atheist.
2007-11-30 16:08:04 · answer #8 · answered by kirk m 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
2500 years ago you would most likely be illiterate. You wouldn't be able to read your scripture.
2007-11-30 16:07:11 · answer #9 · answered by Orland C 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't know, but I don't think I'd want to since I think that'd be kind of mean. I would demand to know why my scripture demanded it.
2007-11-30 16:04:56 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋