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John 1:1 is used to support that teaching that Jesus is God. Did you know that if you examine the scripture, it will show that Jesus is actually NOT God, but inferior to him. There are 2 points to show this.

Question...what are the 2 points that prove Jesus and God are different?

2007-11-30 07:24:05 · 25 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

25 answers

In many Bibles, the first part of Jn 1:1 says, "In the beginning was the Word,"

The word "beginning" as used in Jn 1:1 indicates that the Word BEGAN at this time. Jehovah God, the Father alone has always existed. Therefore, the word "beginning" cannot be applied to Him, but only to His CREATIONS.

The second part of Jn 1:1 says,"...and the Word was WITH God,"

The word "with" as is used in Jn 1:1 indicates that the Word was near or by God at this time. God is phrased as a SEPERATE PERSON from the Word in Jn 1:1.

The third part (in many Bibles) of Jn 1:1 says, "...and the Word was God."

In New Testament Greek, the same word is used for "God" and "a god" which is theos (qeoV). Theos is the Greek word used in the third part of Jn 1:1. So how does one know if "God" or "a god" was meant here?

In New Testament Greek, the language does have a definite article ("the"), but it does not have an indefinite article ("a" or an"). At John 1:1, there are two occurrences of theos. The first one has the definite article ("the") but the second one in the third part of Jn 1:1 (the one in question) does not.

The first part of Jn 1:1 indicates that the Word began at this time. And if the third part of Jn 1:1 were interpreted to mean "the" God, then this would contradict the preceding clause of the second part which says that the Word was with God. Yet, the use of "God" for theos (qeoV) in John 1:1c is purposely mistranslated in most Trinitarian-produced Bibles as "God."

2007-11-30 10:09:04 · answer #1 · answered by tik_of_totg 3 · 2 0

Jn1:1,'RS;[,KJ JB Dy,Kx,NAB] What is it these translators are seeing in the Greek text that moves some of them to refrain from saying "the Word was God''? The difinate article [the] appears before the first occurance of[ the.os' ]-[God] but not before the second.The articular [when the article appears] construction of the noun points to an identity ,a personality ,whereas a singular anarthrous-[without the article] predicate noun before the verb [as the sentence is constructed in greek]points to a quality about someone .So the text is not saying that the Word [Jesus] was the same as the God with whom he was but, rather, that the Word was godlike , devine, a god [not THE God.] READ verse [18][20:31]

2007-11-30 16:01:58 · answer #2 · answered by oatesmokid 4 · 2 0

The Word was God is poor grammar, and it doesn't fit the context of the Bible. Based on the Coptic Translation of the Greek Scriptures, it was not translated to "Word was God", but it was translated to "Word was a god" or "Word was a divine being."

So scholars that say its impossible to make this translation is obviously wrong. The people who translated it spoke and wrote in Greek.. and this is not usual for Greek Scholars today.


Theres many scriptures taken out of context by trinitarians to prove the trinity doctrine, and it just shows they rather believe in something thats not biblical.

For example, Trinitarians say the trinity is like the Mind Body and Soul.. Well if that was true then the trinity would be false. Jesus was dead for three days, and by knowing that, there would be no trinity.

Jesus said his father is the only true God, making him not a actual God.

John 10:30 is taken out of context too by trinitarians, just for the fact that we can also be one with God, just as they are one. (John 17)

Isaiah 9:6 is also used to support the trinity doctrine. But Jesus never had any of these titles prior to coming to earth, he was given them once he was born as the son of man.


I can go on and on how the trinity is false, but I guess trinitarians will never get the message.

2007-11-30 15:43:52 · answer #3 · answered by VMO 4 · 3 1

In the model prayer, Jesus commands us to pray to "Our Father" The bible also refers to Jesus as having been created, no where is God the Father (YHWH) referred to as being created.

According to Jason Beduhn, the NWT translates John 1:1 correctly when it says the Word was a god. Look up his name if you want to see his credentials

2007-11-30 17:13:32 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 1 0

My copy of the Bible says "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."

Jesus is the Son of God but he is still a part of God. Just like I am an individual but I am also a part of my mother and father because without them I would not be.

2007-11-30 15:35:43 · answer #5 · answered by 9_ladydi 5 · 2 2

Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word [or, the Expression of [divine] Logic], and the Word was with [or, in communion with] God, and the Word was God [or, was as to His essence God].

This is from the Analytical-Literal translation. Show where it denies His deity.

Joh 10:30 I and the Father are One!
Joh 10:31 Then again the Jews took up stones, that they might stone Him.

They wanted to stone Him because He claimed to be God. How did the NWT twist this Scripture?

2007-11-30 15:32:51 · answer #6 · answered by BrotherMichael 6 · 4 2

John 1:1,2 the two points in the context of these verses that prove Jesus is not God.

Footnote from the New American Bible:

2 [1] In the beginning: also the first words of the Old Testament (Genesis 1:1). Was: this verb is used three times with different meanings in this verse: existence, relationship, and predication. The Word (Greek logos): this term combines God's dynamic, creative word (Genesis), personified preexistent Wisdom as the instrument of God's creative activity (Proverbs), . . . With God: the Greek preposition here connotes communication with another. Was God: lack of a definite article with "God" in Greek signifies predication rather than identification.

1st point :

1). "Was: this verb is used three times with different meanings in this verse: . . . relationship, With God: the Greek preposition here connotes communication with another."

< Relationship: "The Word is with God" It is spiritual and physically impossible to be with someone and be that person at the same time. God is not talking with himself, but to his Son. >

2) "The Word (Greek logos): this term combines God's dynamic, creative word (Genesis), personified preexistent Wisdom as the instrument of God's creative activity (Proverbs),"

< The term Word denotes the same as Wisdom from Proverbs.

This would be Prov. 8:22, which says Wisdom had a beginning.

Prov. 8:30 shows that Wisdom was not the creator, but the master worker, working under God in the creation. >

3) "Was God: lack of a definite article with "God" in Greek signifies predication rather than identification."

< Predication is a big word meaning quality. Thus Jesus has the qualities of God, not (identification) that he is God . >

John 1:2

4) < Jesus is With God, and not God.

I'm sorry you only asked for two.

In the above footnote I left out the reference to Hellenistic philosophy because Paul said not to be mislead by it.

To teach the trinity from this verse you have to resort to Hellenistic philosophy and not the teachings of God's Word. >


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Our understanding of Heb 1:8 has to agree with Heb 1:9.

9 You loved righteousness, and you hated lawlessness. That is why God, your God, anointed you with [the] oil of exultation more than your partners.”

Jesus' God (and not himself) anointed him more than his partners.

Since Jesus' God did the anointing God can not be a partner.

Jesus' partners in this verse reference all the other sons of God in heaven. Job 1:6.

Remember vs 8 "But with reference to the Son:"

Heb 1:8 & 9 are quoting Ps 45, and in this verse 'Oh God' does not mean the kings of Israel are equal to or the same person as God is.
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2007-11-30 16:02:52 · answer #7 · answered by TeeM 7 · 2 0

Jesus prayed to God several times in the Bible. Was he praying to himself? Of course not. God created Jesus. He didn't create himself. God the Father and Jesus the son of God no confusion here. You and your father are not the same person are you?

2007-11-30 15:52:18 · answer #8 · answered by FL Sunshine 5 · 3 1

No where in scripture does it say that Jesus is inferior to God. Jesus, himself will be in subjection to God after he delivers up the church. Does subjection mean inferior? Check out Luke 2:51,52 before you answer.

2007-11-30 15:31:27 · answer #9 · answered by enamel 7 · 2 3

In two places, it says the Word was "with God".

Even a child can understand that you cannot both be WITH someone and BE that person at the same time.

2007-11-30 16:41:48 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

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