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In the english translation, the commandment says "You shall not kill." I have heard recently that the original hebrew word more closely meant "murder", which is a very particular type of killing. Since I am no hebrew scholar, could someone please educate me on the precise entymology of the original word?

It would make more sense, the same as the difference between a prohibition from lying and one from bearing false witness - a particular and heinous sort of lie.

There was plenty of killing at the hands of the Israelites after the commandments were handed down. So it seems killing is allowed, except when it is unjustified and premeditated.

Please, just the hebrew definition, I'm not interested in a debate over the morality of killing.

Thanks in advance.

2007-11-30 07:17:53 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Holy Bunny, so if I kill you and feel bad about it, I can be absolved by skinning you and eating you? Would that be kosher?

(sorry, I too, can't resist!)

Rabbit stew! Yum! That requires a red wine, I believe. . ..

2007-11-30 08:09:45 · update #1

13 answers

The Bible clearly reveals that the 6th commandment only prohibits unjust killing, such as that of the innocent, or for less than a capital offense, or out of an motive, or by an unlawful entity. etc.

Brown Drive Briggs definition:
H7523 [Strongs number]
רצח
râtsach
BDB Definition:
1) to murder, slay, kill
1a) (Qal) to murder, slay
1a1) premeditated
1a2) accidental
1a3) as avenger
1a4) slayer (intentional) (participle)
1b) (Niphal) to be slain
1c) (Piel)
1c1) to murder, assassinate
1c2) murderer, assassin (participle) (substantive)
1d) (Pual) to be killed
=================

H7523
רצח
râtsach
Total KJV Occurrences: 47
slayer, 17
Num_35:11, Num_35:25-28 (4), Deu_4:42, Deu_19:3-4 (2), Deu_19:6, Jos_20:3, Jos_20:5-6 (2), Jos_21:13, Jos_21:21, Jos_21:27, Jos_21:32, Jos_21:38
murderer, 13
Num_35:16-19 (7), Num_35:21 (2), Num_35:30-31 (2), 2Ki_6:32, Job_24:14
kill, 4
Exo_20:13, Num_35:27, Deu_4:42, Deu_5:17
murder, 3
Psa_94:6, Hos_6:9 (2)
slain, 3
Jdg_20:4, Psa_62:3, Pro_22:13
manslayer, 2
Num_35:6, Num_35:12
death, 1
Num_35:30
killed, 1
1Ki_21:19
killing, 1
Hos_4:2
murderers, 1
Isa_1:21
slayeth, 1
Deu_22:26

Like in life, context often determines meaning. The Bible overall provides abundant context and reiterations by which it interpret itself. There are others words for kill but which do not always denote unjust killing.
===============================================
For the railer (not the questioner) who charges God with not following His own rules, there is not one instance when the judgment of God was not according to truth (Rm. 2:2), rather if you would read the Bible and in context, you would see that any Divine executions were after a long time of God's long suffering of immoral behavior, which they were warned of (Ps. 78; 105, 106). And such are actually an act of mercy for the world.

And if you read the Bible through without a rebellious heart, you will see that it is God who is constantly giving us good things and good laws, which we misuse and break - and then blame God for the mess! If God made robots you might have a case, but He does not which is why you could write your blasphemy, and He is merciful, which is why many rebels against God are still breathing.

(Eccl 7:29) "Lo, this only have I found, that God hath made man upright; but they have sought out many inventions."

And God's giving did not stop at giving material things, but He so loved that He gave the most precious thing He could give, that which was never Created, and gave His only Begotten Son that we might live though Him, who loved us and gave Himself for us.

(Acts 3:19) "Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord;"

2007-11-30 08:38:03 · answer #1 · answered by www.peacebyjesus 5 · 2 1

The Hebrew/Aramaic names in question begin with what English speakers would describe as a Y sound. The reason we spell them with an initial J is that German scholars dominated the field for quite a while, particularly around the 19th century, and J in German represents that sound. Jesus is taken into English via German, Latin, and Greek; the original name was probably something like Yeshua, though I've also seen it written Yehoshua around here. Jehovah combines consonants from YHWH (perhaps pronounced "Yahweh"; the V for a W-sound is another German influence) with vowels from Hebrew "Adonai." The Hebrew was originally written without vowel marks, and it was customary to substitute a title rather than pronouncing the Name of God. "Adonai" (Lord) was the usual substitution except when it already preceded YHWH in the text, in which case "Elohim" (God) was used instead. The vowel markings added to the Hebrew consonants were the vowels for the substituted word.

2016-03-15 01:34:48 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I hate being the spoiler, but we can never be sure when the translation of "tirtzach" became "murder". Clearly, the translators of the KJV and most other early versions believed it meant "kill". Why would we discount their translations? Is it because it renders the commandment (Deut 5:17) as absurd? Maybe the original Bible text was absurd and we are constantly striving to make the text rational, as is depicted by the many versions that now exist. Could it be that today's Jewish scholars, who provide us with the English meaning of Hebrew words, are biased towards making the Bible text believable? Does it not seem absurd that God's words can be translated in many ways instead of only one way regardless of when, where, and what language it is translated into?

2015-10-10 22:29:07 · answer #3 · answered by Running on Common Sense 2 · 0 1

The problem is with the English word "murder" which means, to kill, intentionally with malice. Malice means lack of justification, mitigation or excuse. These in turn have specific legal justifications. Be assured that the 10 commandments prohibit reckless killing, which is not necessarily murder.

2015-08-04 04:01:58 · answer #4 · answered by Mitchel 1 · 0 0

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In the english translation, the commandment says "You shall not kill." I have heard recently that the original hebrew word more closely meant "murder", which is a very particular type of killing. Since I am no hebrew scholar, could someone please educate me on the precise...

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2016-04-17 02:03:46 · answer #6 · answered by paola 3 · 0 0

It's 'murder'.

The reason for this is that self defence is permitted. You might have to kill someone to save your own life. But if you 'murder' then there is a value judgement already established; it is pre-meditated.

2007-11-30 10:36:20 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

The Jewish sages note that the word “ratsakh” applies only to illegal killing (e.g., premeditated murder or manslaughter) — and is never used in the administration of justice or for killing in war. Hence the KJV translation as “thou shalt not kill” is too broad.

Since man is made in the image of God, his life is infinitely precious — only God Himself has the right to give and take life. In the Mishnah it is written, “Why was only one man (i.e., Adam) created by God? — to teach that whoever takes a single life destroys thereby a whole world.”

http://www.levitt.com/hebrew/commandments.html

New American Standard Bible (©1995)
"You shall not murder.

GOD'S WORD® Translation (©1995)
"Never murder.

King James Bible
Thou shalt not kill.

American Standard Version
Thou shalt not kill.

Bible in Basic English
Do not put anyone to death without cause.

Douay-Rheims Bible
Thou shalt not kill.

Darby Bible Translation
Thou shalt not kill.

English Revised Version
Thou shalt do no murder.

Jewish Publication Society Tanakh
Thou shalt not murder.

Webster's Bible Translation
Thou shalt not kill.

World English Bible
"You shall not murder.

Young's Literal Translation
'Thou dost not murder.

Latin: Biblia Sacra Vulgata
non occides

Greek OT: Septuagint
ου μοιχευσεις

Greek OT: Septuagint with Diacritics
οὐ μοιχεύσεις

Greek: Modern
Μη φονευσης.

Hebrew: Modern
לא תרצח׃

Hebrew OT: BHS (Consonants Only)
לא תרצח׃ ס

Hebrew OT: BHS (Consonants and Vowels)
לֹא תִּֿרְצָח׃ ס

Hebrew OT: Westminster Leningrad Codex
לֹ֥֖א תִּֿרְצָֽ֖ח׃ ס

Hebrew OT: WLC (Consonants Only)
לא תרצח׃ ס

Hebrew OT: WLC (Consonants and Vowels)
לֹא תִּרְצָח׃ ס

Hebrew OT: Aleppo Codex
יב לא תרצח {ס

2007-11-30 08:51:10 · answer #8 · answered by Someone who cares 7 · 1 0

Please check it out for yourself in a Strong's Concordance. Just look up the word, find which Hebrew word number it is, and look up that number. You will see a dictionary definition of the original Hebrew word.

It is murder.

2007-11-30 07:24:30 · answer #9 · answered by Automation Wizard 6 · 3 0

I know you said no morality debates, but I'm sorry, I can't resist.

For me, the distinction between killing and murder is all to do with how necessary it is.

You kill an animal for food. That is killing. You have an accident while trying to protect yourself. That is killing.

Any DELIBERATE taking of another's life that doesn't involve the subsequent skinning and eating of the victim is murder.

((((hugs))))

May peace go with you throughout your life

2007-11-30 07:27:28 · answer #10 · answered by ? 5 · 0 2

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