We haven't had one in awhile. Is there some rule, rhyme or reason?
2007-11-30 04:27:54 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Hey yeah, virgin birth and immaculate conception are two different things. I didn't know that!
I actually learned something new today!
2007-11-30 04:37:18 · update #1
Is it the Virgin Birth you are referring to?
It was Mary the Virgin who was conceived in her mother's womb free from the stain of original sin. That is, She was conceived, the normal way, but without original sin.
2007-11-30 04:35:45 · answer #1 · answered by Darrol P 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I am an atheist, but the Immaculate Conception follows Luke's Gospel. Luke has the angel say to Mary, "Hail! O Full of Grace!" The Greek word was kecharitomene. It is the past perfect participle form of charitoo. For that word to have any meaning, Mary must have always been without sin, including original sin. This was before Jesus was in her, according to the story. So she was the new Eve, the perfect woman in the sense that she had been preserved from the illness of sin that had so plagued the world so God could restore it anew.
If you are Christian, then the reason they are not common is that they are now unnecessary, baptism having the same effect.
However, if you are not Christian, then I would say they happen all of the time. After all, were you born with the stain of original sin? I wasn't. So the good news is that without Christianity, we could all be immaculately conceived.
2007-11-30 14:41:27 · answer #2 · answered by OPM 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Immaculate Conception and the Virgin Birth are two separate things.
If you're referring to the Virgin Birth, well, there are many instances of parthenogenesis in nature. Several animals can reproduce without the aid of male fertilization.
Humans, however, cannot.
By the way, Christ is not the only mythological figure to be born of a virgin. Dionysos, Perseus, Horus and many others were also said to have virgin mothers.
EDIT: Reading some of the responses it is evident that many christians have no knowledge of even the most basic tenets of their religion. Jesus' virgin birth is not the same as Immaculate Conception. IC refers to Mary.
2007-11-30 12:32:53 · answer #3 · answered by mam2121 4 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Sorry for being pedantic:
"The Immaculate Conception is, according to Roman Catholic dogma, the conception of Mary, the mother of Jesus without any stain of original sin, in her mother's womb."
2007-11-30 12:35:24 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
What would make you think immaculate conception is anything but a miracle?
2007-11-30 12:34:18 · answer #5 · answered by Herb W 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because there is only one Savior- and only God could do what He did, Jesus came once to save, once and for, so therefore only one immaculate conception.
2007-11-30 12:31:08 · answer #6 · answered by AdoreHim 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
You're confused. Mary was the product of the immaculate conception, not Jesus.
p.s. -- you might want to take those pants back; they were mislabled.
2007-11-30 12:34:25 · answer #7 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
I think it only occurs when God is able to get his divine Viagra, and reclaim his former omnipotence, because, as of today, his prime child fathering years are behind him...(along with his ability to interact with us, but I think that is just senility setting in...).
2007-11-30 12:32:56 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
In humans, they are extremely rare, but not unheard of. However, the baby is basically a clone of the mother, so they are always female.
2007-11-30 12:31:47 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
At least you learned something.
2007-11-30 12:46:50 · answer #10 · answered by Soul Man 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋