English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

I wasn't alive yet so don't freak out on me.
I need to analyze Speaker for the Dead and need to know if there was segregation at the time the novel was written

2007-11-29 13:35:08 · 4 answers · asked by Carly 3 in Arts & Humanities Books & Authors

4 answers

Legally, in the United States and most western European, there was no segregation. South Africa was still under Apartheid rule in 1986 and many lesser developed countries might have laws segregating certain parts of their populations. The Kurds have been kicked around as second-class citizens all over the Middle East.

Racism certainly existed all over the world in 1986 and is still around today.

2007-11-29 14:13:35 · answer #1 · answered by Kevin k 7 · 0 0

There has always been racial segregation, even though its been unlawful since the Civil Rights Acts of the late 1960's. An example of modern segregation would be poor housing projects.

2007-11-29 21:41:43 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Segregation remains in some places to this day. Even where you may least suspect it.

2007-11-29 21:39:20 · answer #3 · answered by LK 7 · 0 0

Not that I am aware of. Unless you count separating whites and coloreds when you do the laundry.
----
They're, Their, There - Three Different Words.

Careful or you may wind up in my next novel.

Pax - C

2007-11-29 21:39:05 · answer #4 · answered by Persiphone_Hellecat 7 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers