2007-11-29 11:52:05 · 25 answers · asked by Lea 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Yes it is. Think of a pie divided into 3 pieces, each piece is 1/3. Now cut each of those pieces in half, you'd get 6 pieces and each piece would be 1/6.
2007-11-29 11:55:45 · answer #1 · answered by Dashy 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If you have two 1/6's, then you have 1/3.
2007-11-29 11:58:31 · answer #2 · answered by jimmymae2000 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. 2/6 is the same as 1/3. So if you cut 2/6 by 50%, you get 1/3
2007-11-29 11:55:05 · answer #3 · answered by Cindy H 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it is
(1/3) / 2 = 1/3 * 1/2 = 1/6
2007-11-29 11:54:11 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
yes 1/3 multiplied by 1/2 is equal to 1/6 so half of 1/3 is 1/6
2007-11-29 11:55:47 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Surely, Certainly, Absolutely. Correct!!
(1/3) / 2
= 1/3 * 1/2
= 1/6
2007-11-29 11:56:05 · answer #6 · answered by Chan A 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
duh....i might sound like a math geek but the smaller the denominator the smaller the pieces so if u divide the denominator (the bottom one if u dont no what the heck a denominator is)by 2 the fraction becomes one half.....1/3 is one half of 1/6 just as 1/2 is 1/2 of one....hope i helped :) p.s. u could just multiply the fraction by 1/2
2007-11-29 11:58:10 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes it is! to find the half of something multiply it by 1/2
such as 1/3*1/2 is 1/6!!!
2007-11-29 11:54:58 · answer #8 · answered by John Patterson 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes. 1/6 / 1/3 = 1/2
justified!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!1
2007-11-29 11:54:49 · answer #9 · answered by Plain Silly 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes
2007-11-29 11:58:55 · answer #10 · answered by tj is cool 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋