2007-11-29 01:23:56 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
if 'political correctness' was some type of law being imposed on people then it would infringe on first amendment rights
2007-11-29 01:31:58 · answer #1 · answered by qb 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The PC culture is running rampant. There are untold amounts of special interest groups all vying for their respective minority interests.
A new phenomenon that has emerged from this PC culture is reverse discrimination. Is harder for a highly qualified white male to get a scholarship, an entry-level job, or a timely promotion than ever before.
This kind of evolving culture is just that: culture and it does not violate the US constitution. In fact, many would argue that the Spirit of the Constitution is to protect minority rights and to mold language so that one does not offend. Many see it as a virtue to not offend. Without continuing my monologue, I think it's gone too far.
2007-11-29 09:46:40 · answer #2 · answered by Ian 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Political correctness is not a law. The US Constitutional determines the limits of legislation -- it does not mandate private behavior (including the policies of private organizations), nor does it enact culture.
2007-11-29 09:42:10 · answer #3 · answered by Rеdisca 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hey the government owns and runs the supreme court, so they can make anything "constitutional".
2007-11-29 09:57:46 · answer #4 · answered by WC 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Political correctness is a bunch of bullsh** !!!!!!!
2007-11-29 09:36:44 · answer #5 · answered by missingora 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
yes
2007-11-29 09:28:12 · answer #6 · answered by 007 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, in my opinion.
2007-11-29 09:32:05 · answer #7 · answered by grumpyoldman 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋