this pertains to all the lands that were owned by the arab empires of the middle ages.
including the middle east, north africa and the iberian peninsula.
to this were added any lands who were ruled by muslims over the ages.
these things are not explainable by logical sequential thinking when they are used to support a political issue.
2007-11-28 19:50:34
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answer #1
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answered by joe the man 7
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EU, your answer dodges a serious flaw: where exactly is the cut-off between an appropriate amount of time away to lay claim and an illegitimate one? You obviously feel that 2000 years renders the Jewish claim the latter, while the 60 years renders the Palestinian claim the former. Since those Palestinian refugees fled 60 years ago, we can assume that only those who are very old now actually lived in Israel. The vast majority were born outside, and probably never even set foot on Israeli soil. At that point, is there any real difference between 1/2 generations and dozens? Between decades and millenia? At the end of the day, we're talking about groups who were once there and then weren't and want to go back. I don't see any logical point at which the amount of time gone is too long. Further, assuming there is such a point, in theory then Israel would just have to wait X amount of time until this claim is invalidated. By this logic, we must conclude that while the land may have been Arab land, it certainly no longer is because the majority and the culture living there today are Jewish. Your point about Jews integrating into their host societies is a fallacy. For starters, the fact that there is still a distinct people called Jews means that they didn't integrate, rather stayed a distinct group within a larger population. Secondly, in every country Jews have been in they've been separated and persecuted. They were expelled from European countries such as Britain, France and Spain as well as practically all the Arab countries. Not exactly the integration you imply in your answer. Beyond that then, is the simple fact that Jews were in power in Israel as well as the majority for a much longer period than the Arabs were.
I would agree with you that it is difficult to label land as inherently ethnic. It would seem therefore that the land is as it is, and the people upon it, define it. Jews are the majority of Israel today, so Israel is Jewish. The Arab countries are predominantly Arab, so they are Arab. European countries are predominantly Christian, so they are Christian etc. This is different than a people laying a historical/religious claim on a land, as that is not an inherent trait to the land, but an aquired connection.
2007-11-29 08:11:37
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answer #2
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answered by Michael J 5
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A country is a land that hosts people from certain race. The Arabic countries are countries that are controlled by Arabs right now.
If you are trying to compare that with the situation in Israel, Arab syrians didn't kick the greeks out of the country claiming that G-d gave them the land. I don't know a lot about the history but I know for now that the greeks have their own country.
If you want to take it that way, there shouldn't be lebanon as well because the Otamans controlled it before the WWI.
2007-11-29 01:32:49
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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the arab lands are egypt, syria, sudan, ksa, tunisia, algieria............etc, including PALASTINE, jews took palastine gave it the name israel and started killing people there and started to extend what thet call "israel", to us, the arabs, israel doesn't even exists...here in egypt and in the arab countries we dont have its name on the map...we call it occupied palastine you know why cause we know for sure and jews also know that we will take back our lands and get back all our rights and as we always say if jews want to live with us they can keep their religion but they must live under the name and laws of our lands...some one answerd and said "muslims started forcing their religion", this is actually not right at all, god told us in quran "w la eqrah fi al din" which means no one is forced to follow a certain religion every one has the choice...either left or right..please people here on this site stop saying anythig unless ur 100% sure
thank you
2007-12-02 10:04:46
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answer #4
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answered by jojo 2
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It all comes from propagander. The majority of the Arab population beleive every thing that they are told . No one thinks for them selves . If they are taught in their Mosques that red is black so be it. It's a big problem . They have no idea of western history or even the history of the middle east only their version.....It's sad here we are in the 21st century and they still living in their make beleive world .
2007-11-30 04:31:36
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Is Israel not the land of the Jews? Meaning as B said mostly Jewish people live there? I think its when it has the majority of people living in a place its like this. Is the UK french land? Is France english land? ect. ect. ect. Cheers!
2007-11-28 17:35:54
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answer #6
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answered by HopelessZ00 6
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Arab Peninsula
2007-11-29 04:08:55
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answer #7
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answered by moneymaker 2
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Dont get me wrong im not saying destroy israel or stuff like that but i am apposed to people labeling Palestine/Israel as being jewish land.
I full well understand Jews where once the majority in the area pre '48 but that was about 2000 years ago.
The fact of the matter is jews left for the most part and intergrated into their "host" societies and became a different people.
After 2000 years you cant just lay claim to a place based on people you share a common culture/relegion with who may or may not have been your ancient ancient ancestors.
So Palestine is "arab land" in the sense that the ARabs of the area (Palestinians) built homes and lives for generations and for the most part where not perturbed until recent events which have been caused by many people most notably arabs themselves.
"Michael J" I will respond to the rest of your comments in due time but when i say jews intergrate i mean that in terms of race and culturally to aswell let me explain.
The jews for the most part of their history or atleast the ashekenazis who i will speak of in this example came to europe and intergrated into Euroepan society racially, ie you cant tell the difference between a christian and an ashekanezi standing from poland for ex, they are both whites but nothing to lead you to think that one is a different race from the other.
I do understand that jews where persecuted and mal treated but at the same time they became parts of Euroepan society albeit among much persecution.
The Jews left the land of modern day Israel 2000 years ago and developed racially and culturally away from it to the point where for the most part there was no connection to speak of but it is rather different for the Palestinians, they live in the area under drastically reduced borders ie the west bank and gaza but still part of the land of "Palestine". The connection is still there and to judge who is a palestinain and who qualifies to be one will have to be defined obviously when a palestinian state comes into being, and the law of return (for palestinians) is given criteria.
Today it is qutie diferent however because the palestinians are still more or less on the land, wiether it be "Israeli arabs" in israel or palestinians in gaza and the west bank, those are still parts of "Palestine" keep in mind.
There are also international laws (which there were non in ancient times) which deem israels occupation of some of the land in question illegal.
2007-11-28 18:08:18
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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According to Islam the world is divided into 2 parts. The world of Islam (Dar al-Islam) and world of war (dar al-Harb). I.e. there are lands controled by Muslims today i.e. under dominion of Islam are part of world of Islam. Islam does not allow under any sircumstances to cede the land to any non-Islamic entity. If any land was taken from muslims by force, that land still has the status of "world of Islam" and muslims have religeous obligation to take it back by any means including force as soon as possible. That is the reason why Muslims see Spain, Israel and some other places as theirs. (That is the reason why I don't believe in peace process with any Islamic entity based on good will - it could only be based on military superiority to the point that muslims do not consider military take over as a viable option). The second part of the world is the "World of War" (Dar al-Harb). It is the part of the world that is controled by infidels (from Islamic standpoint people that do not accept Islam as their religeon). That part of the world has to be conquered by the means of holy war (Jihad) and Islam has to be forced on the inhabitants. Anyone who is not willing to accept Islam must be killed. The only valid reason not to atack any part of "world of war" is military superiority of the other side. I.e. if at the moment Muslims can not take the land by force - make a peace treaty and get ready for war. Once you have enough power - break any treaty and atack. According to Islam any treaty with non-muslim entity may be broken whenever it suits muslim interests. There are other definitions for some territories, but those 2 are major. For good article look at the source link
2007-11-29 04:15:19
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answer #9
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answered by Lizard 4
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well arab land now = all countries that are controlled and inhabited (mainly) by arabs.
But there are some flaws in this definition, for example Iraq is an arab country but it is currently controlled by the United States, that's why many Iraqis are standing up and trying to free it from occupation.
well arab land now = all countries that are controlled and inhabited (mainly) by arabs.
But there are some flaws in this definition, for example Iraq is an arab country but it is currently controlled by the United States, that's why many Iraqis are standing up and trying to free it from occupation.
Land that is inhabited and controlled by people who are arabs is arab land, land that is inhabited by brits is british land, land that is inhabited by americans is american land. If you're asking how someone can ''own'' a land then, first of all, this question would have to be asked in the Philosophy section, and second it would have to be applied to all countries not just arab countries.
2007-11-28 16:59:06
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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