Does Quran 65:4 allow muslim men to have adult relations with pre-pubescent girls?

Question

This is Qur'an 65: http://www.usc.edu/dept/MSA/quran/065.qmt.html

In context, this chapter of the Quran details the circumstances of divorce and when a man can divorce his wife. In fairness, he is not supposed to leave her if she could be pregnant, but he is also supposed to wait three months (where she has menses each month) to prove she is not pregnant so he can leave.

HOWEVER, there's a line in 65:4 that include women who have never had their menses (i.e. too young to have menses, prepubescent) and they also have to wait three months.

We know for fact that false prophet muhammad married a 6 year old and consummated that marriage when she was pre-menses at age 9- this is proven in multiple hadith where the age of consummation is explicitly stated, and she has been taken from playing on her swing and with her dolls in order for muhammad to violate her

http://www.wikiislam.com/wiki/Pedophilia_in_the_Qur%27an

Carl R. -
There is no documentation of Mary's age at the time of Jesus' birth. Also the birth was allegedly virgin birth (which does not include pedophilia).

Muhammad has never tried to hide his pedophilic tendencies

Answer 1

Excellent stuff Darth.

Ive studied Islam in depth, and missed this one. I love it when people do their homework. Thanks for adding to my knowledge base.

Answer 2

Interesting.

So the license for young girls is not limited to Muhammad but extended to all muslim men.

Answer 3

that's nasty, like a girl has freedom of choice when she is six years old anyways. A man can do that but a woman is made to cover her whole body up, no wonder they are so worried about perverts.

Answer 4

Sorry but that "Period" mentioned in the Ayeh is the period 3 months of no sex before a marriage is about to break up, to see if the women has a child or not before they divorce.

Answer 5

"(Remember), if you are in doubt about the ‘iddat.’ of your women, _ either because they are past the age, or haven’t yet started to menstruate _ it lasts three months. The ‘iddat’ for the pregnant women (is three months, or it) lasts till the termination of pregnancy. (iddat: the period after divorce during which a woman is forbidden to remarry). Allah (grants a leeway and) makes matters easy for the one who fears Him. (The Noble Quran, 65:4)"

Answer 6

that is truly shocking

i bet they will say your taking it out of context but the link you added has the tasfir and the quotes from reputable muslim sites and scholars

EDIT most scholars say mary was born in 22 bc and jesus was born in either 4 bc or 1 ad making mary either 16 or 22 at the time of jesus birth

Answer 7

Muhammad(PBUH*) is not a false prophet and he didn't marry Aisha at 6. She was betrothed to him at 6(Marriage contract was signed) and she married him at 9. He didn't have sex with her until she got her period as a teenager. It was the practice back then for men to be betrothed to infant girls and then when they became of age were married to the man their father chose for them. Aisha married Muhammad(PBUH*) of her own free will. She wasn't forced to marry him.

Sura 65:4
4.As for the women who have reached menopause, if you have any doubts, their interim shall be three months. As for those who do not menstruate, and discover that they are pregnant, their interim ends upon giving birth. Anyone who reverences GOD, He makes everything easy for him.

It is not talking about pre pubescent girls. Some women do not menstruate at all and become pregnant and won't know they are pregnant until they give birth.

Answer 8

Why are you applying modern standards to these people? Mary was underage, and it was not unusual for people to arrainge marriages throughout the West between underage children...

Answer 9

I am having Taiwanese chicken noodles for lunch.

Answer 10

God I hope not