since it was revised four times, the last being in 1769.
What Bible would these KJV worshippers recommend since before 1611 there was no Bible.
Do they realize that the apostle Paul did not use the KJV. Why do KJV only advocates reject the apocrypha, since the original 1611 version contained the apocrypha?
2007-11-28 01:27:15 · 11 answers · asked by King James 33 1/3% 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Ok you say it was revised many times. Did any words in it change, and please provide the scriptures that changed? Thanks
2007-11-28 01:36:29 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Uh, the KJV isn't inspired. The original Bible manuscripts - the writings of Paul and the disciples and the other Bible writers - THOSE are inspired. The KJV isn't inspired though, it is preserved. God promised to preserve His word, and when He gave us English-speaking folks the KJV I believe He kept His promise to us.
Before 1611, there was a Bible. It has been around in its entirety since John was inspired to write Revelation in AD 90ish (can't remember the exact year, sorry!). I don't know when it was put together as an entire Bible with 66 books like we have today, but at some point it was. The trouble was, people who had the real Bible and read it, studied it, and memorized it were often burned at the stake as a heretic, and their Bibles were burned too. The Roman Catholic Church did its level best to eradicate the real Bible and its followers from the face of the earth, but God preserved it and them. That is why I say that the KJV is preserved.
Yes, we know that Paul didn't use the KJV. He did, however, write the books of the Bible that ended up being translated into the KJV.
As for the Apocrypha, I don't know why the translators even bothered to translate it. It isn't actual Scripture. I guess that just shows that they weren't biased in their work, huh? Anyways, we don't believe it because it is not part of the inspired Word of God. It has no place in the Bible because it is not Scripture.
2007-11-28 01:39:57 · answer #2 · answered by Blue Eyed Christian 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
There were several Bibles before 1611. The Geneva Bible already had 2 versions out. Do your homework. No version of the Bible is inspired. All versions we have today are translations/versions of copies of inspired documents.
No version of the King James is inspired. Unfortunately some factions of certain denominations idolize the KJV. And they even use a modern revision of it.
2007-11-28 01:36:30 · answer #3 · answered by Poor Richard 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I just have to say one thing. I agree with you on almost every point. I don't believe the KJV is any better than any other version.
However, your statement "Before 1611 there was no Bible" is completely incorrect. The KJV wasn't even the first English Bible. It was only the first MASS PRODUCED English Bible.
2007-11-28 01:32:11 · answer #4 · answered by The_Cricket: Thinking Pink! 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Only the original texts were divinely inspired. So none of the editions of the KJV of 1611 (or the Catholic Douay of 1609) are inspired.
As to why some go for it only, ignorance, superstition and fear are the reason....and they are often told they'll go to hell if they use any other.
Debbie
2007-11-28 01:32:20 · answer #5 · answered by debbiepittman 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋
No KJV never had the apocrypha. Nice try Mr. catholic cultist
2007-11-28 01:32:15 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 2⤋
No, actually there grow to be yet another revision in 1979 called the recent King James edition (NKJV). individually, i like the old unique KJV of 1611, yet I additionally use the residing Bible and the Amplified Bible so as that i will get an entire understand-how.
2016-10-18 06:56:52 · answer #7 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Only the original Greek texts are inspired in the NT- all others are translations.
2007-11-28 01:30:47 · answer #8 · answered by carl 4 · 1⤊ 2⤋
King James only translated The Bible from Latin, actually. But I can't see how some Christians can believe that our planet is only a few thousand years old despite evidence suggesting otherwise...
2007-11-28 01:32:22 · answer #9 · answered by Jasumi 4 · 0⤊ 6⤋
I would use the first version because that was when English was at it's peak.
2007-11-28 01:32:43 · answer #10 · answered by King Arthur 3 · 1⤊ 3⤋