"You are the salt of the earth. But if the salt loses its saltiness, how can it be made salty again? It is no longer good for anything, except to be thrown out and trampled by men."
Matthew 5:13
If it can't how true is this scripture?
2007-11-27 11:55:08 · 21 answers · asked by Ophiuchus 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
It helps to inter-compare the gospels and letters to get a fuller picture. Here are the relevant verses:
Mt 5:13 Ye are the salt of the earth: but if the salt have lost his savour, wherewith shall it be salted? it is thenceforth good for nothing, but to be cast out, and to be trodden under foot of men.
Mr 9:49 For every one shall be salted with fire, and every sacrifice shall be salted with salt.
Mr 9:50 Salt is good: but if the salt have lost his saltness, wherewith will ye season it? Have salt in yourselves, and have peace one with another.
Lu 14:34 Salt is good: but if the salt have lost his savour, wherewith shall it be seasoned? It is neither fit for the land, nor yet for the dunghill; but men cast it out.
Col 4:6 Let your speech be alway with grace, seasoned with salt, that ye may know how ye ought to answer every man.
So, the first answer is that, according to Jesus and the common practice, salt can, indeed lose its savour (taste), and when this happens, such salt either goes on the land or the dunghill. It is cast out - ie. rejected for the table - and fit thereafter only to be 'trampled underfoot'.
The real question is 'what is this salt which Jesus says is a good thing and we are enjoined to have in ourselves?'. Firstly, it is to do with the sacrifice of ourselves (as in the Temple offerings, which were to be eaten) and the salting (flavouring) comes by the action of the fire. So, it is fire - ie. tribulation, life's sufferings and God's discipline - which produce the salt - the distinctive flavour of Christ - in us.
Also, salt and grace seem to be like 'two opposite sides of one coin' - so to speak. We know that grace is a gentle, sweet and kind thing, so salt must be astringent, stinging and speak of judgment and purging. So, we are to hold the two in the right balance in our dealings with unbelievers. To have salt and grace in oneself reminds us of our duty to stand for the gospel in its entirety, and not just speak about the 'nice bits'. However, since we are also enjoined to have peace with one another, scripture is saying that we should know when to go sparing in our use of the 'salt' and not be contentious.
There is one final point here and that is the obvious question of whether a Christian can lose his saltiness or even not possess it at all. I believe that this is indeed very true of many who profess to follow Jesus in these days, as I see in many instances the Christian world losing its saltiness and savour of salt in this world.
This is partly because of the increased rejection of the gospel by many people of the world, but it is also, sadly, because many Christians have lost their distinctive savour, too. The gospel has been 'watered down' and the doctrines of eternal life are being increasingly denied and replaced by new ones which no longer have to power to save.
This is a trajedy - and the Lord Jesus warned about it - on which the saints urgently need to see light and repent.
2007-11-27 22:58:18 · answer #1 · answered by homechrch 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Barnes Notes on the Bible
The salt used in this country is a chemical compound - chloride of sodium - and if the saltness were lost, or it were to lose its savor, there would be nothing remaining. It enters into the very nature of the substance.
In eastern countries, however, the salt used was impure, or mingled with vegetable or earthy substances, so that it might lose the whole of its saltness, and a considerable quantity of earthy matter remain. This was good for nothing, except that it was used to place in paths, or walks, as we use gravel. This kind of salt is common still in that country. It is found in the earth in veins or layers, and when exposed to the sun and rain, loses its saltness entirely.
Maundrell says, “I broke a piece of it, of which that part that was exposed to the rain, sun, and air, though it had the sparks and particles of salt, yet it had perfectly lost its savor. The inner part, which was connected to the rock, retained its savor, as I found by proof.
So Dr. Thomson (The Land and the Book, vol. ii. pp. 43, 44) says, “I have often seen just such salt, and the identical disposition of it that our Lord has mentioned. A merchant of Sidon having farmed of the government the revenue from the importation of salt, brought over an immense quantity from the marshes of Cyprus - enough, in fact, to supply the whole province for at least 20 years. This he had transferred to the mountains, to cheat the government out of some small percentage. Sixty-five houses in June - Lady Stanhope’s village were rented and filled with salt. These houses have merely earthen floors, and the salt next the ground, in a few years, entirely spoiled. I saw large quantities of it literally thrown into the street, to be trodden underfoot by people and beasts. It was ‘good for nothing.’
2007-11-27 20:07:28 · answer #2 · answered by Martin S 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It's a metaphor. It doesn't really happen but what that's trying to say is this: "What is salt worth without it's flavor? Nothing, It's only good for being thrown out and stepped on."
Like I said it's a metaphor so its a comparison of man to tasteless salt, because if salt is tasteless, salt is not salt and it is not worth anything
2007-11-27 19:59:21 · answer #3 · answered by Joe 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No, but this isn't literal, he is speaking metaphorically. Like if salt weren't salty, I would be useless.
Man is the "salt of the earth" - Until WE (man) in this metaphor cease to be the salt. Then we are useless and will be thrown out.
2007-11-27 19:59:47 · answer #4 · answered by slushpile reader 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Salt "loses" its flavor by dilution, by going away. The point is the flavor, not the chemical composition. Now stop picking on the metaphors and dissect the idea it represents instead.
2007-11-27 19:59:24 · answer #5 · answered by skepsis 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Since it's not supposed to be a chemistry lesson, I don't see the problem. Is that what is supposed to count as an intelligent atheist question? No such thing, I'm afraid.
2007-11-27 23:35:02 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, by ceasing to be salt--which is possible through chemical reaction.
2007-11-27 20:07:39 · answer #7 · answered by delsydebothom 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
no, salt (sodium chloride) can't be un-salty ... unless you damage some taste buds or something
it's called "metaphor", by the way
*weeps for literalism's latest victim*
2007-11-27 20:00:05 · answer #8 · answered by grandfather raven 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
It's a picture story...an example...a metaphor.
It says IF the salt loses it's saltiness.
If, if, if.
2007-11-27 19:57:55 · answer #9 · answered by lady_phoenix39 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Salt has been around for a long long time. nope. hasn't lost any.
2007-11-27 20:00:37 · answer #10 · answered by Captain Galactic 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋