an--> a to the power of n,
bn-->b to the power of n.
2007-11-27 07:21:38 · 2 answers · asked by venkattsr 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Engineering
It's not clear what you mean. As stated, a^n - b^n doesn't have a solution at all, because it hasn't been set equal to anything. Even if it were, there would still be infinitely many solutions.
In general, a^n - b^n is equal to (a^(n/2) + b^(n/2))(a^(n/2) - b^(n/2)) and to (a^(n/3) - b^(n/3))(a^(2n/3) + a^(n/3)*b^(n/3) + b^(2n/3)). Normally, we only use these expansios when n is even (for the first expansion) or divisible by 3 (for the second), but they are true for any real n.
2007-11-29 06:28:12 · answer #1 · answered by DavidK93 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You should re-post this on the math area.
There are few of us Engineers that
can remember how to do this.
2007-11-27 12:04:06 · answer #2 · answered by Robert L 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋