What heterosexual guy has a wife that he hasnt had sex with? A wee bit strange wouldnt you say? Maybe he married Marry to keep up with the male image of that time. He would undoutedbly be stonned to death in those days.
If Marry was really a virgin then Joseph was homosexual.
2007-11-26 20:43:53 · 32 answers · asked by Future 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Maybe the sheep were a little more...accommodating.
2007-11-26 20:57:34 · answer #1 · answered by Ana 5 · 2⤊ 3⤋
I do agree with your arguments and how you backed it up, but I don't really think Joseph was a homosexual. We don't even know a lot about him except of what was said in the bible. So we can't just make judgements. You'll never know...maybe he did have sex with his wife, or maybe not. But that doesn't necessarily mean that he's gay or anything. Maybe Mary didn't want to, and Joseph respected that. But you know, anything can be possible...
2007-11-26 20:51:04 · answer #2 · answered by joe 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Wow. There's no compelling reason to believe that he was. First off, the husband of an adulteress wouldn't've been stoned to death--just the adulteress. Second of all, people abstain from sex for all kinds of the ethical reasons, even married people. If Joseph genuinely believed in his vision about Mary and her child, I think that'd be a pretty good reason to abstain. Finally, Joseph is known to have had other children. For instance, one of the Jameses in the NT is Jesus' brother.
I'm not sure what's better about this question: an adolescent desire to stir up controversy with a poorly structured argument or an unwillingness to admit that ethics may affect sexual behaviors.
2007-11-26 20:50:46 · answer #3 · answered by July 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
No, ha was heterosexual. He postponed sexual relations with his wife until after she gave birth Jesus. After that they were a marriage like every others of their time. Even, they had like four boys and more than one girl. Mary's calling was to be Jesus mother and was chosen while she was still a virgin. There was no requirement from God to her to remain virgin until death. Her mission was to be the mother of Jesus. There is no conflict with her mission to be at the same time the wife of Joseph with all the things included in that package.
2016-04-06 00:18:17 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
First, Mary wasn't married to Joseph when they went to Bethleham.
Second, Mary wasn't a virgin all her life.
Mathew 13:55-56
"Is not this the carpenter's son? Is not His mother called Mary, and His brothers, James and Joseph and Simon and Judas? And His sisters, are they not all with us? Where then did this man get all these things?"
2007-11-26 20:49:59 · answer #5 · answered by Mo-B 1 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Joseph was a jew. Jews typically don't have sex with their possible future wife until they are married. Mary had become pregnant before their marriage and because an angel told him that what she had in side her was of the Ruach HaKodesh (holy spirit) He DID NOT have sexual relations with her.
That's the nice explanation for your question.
Now for the mean explanation.
Apparently you don't read the bible much: Mary had children AFTER the birth of the messiah (christ). Therefore more than likely they are Joseph's. Hence , he would not be gay.
Of course you could speculate that he was still somehow gay. But I could speculate the same about yourself since your asking gay questions.
2007-11-26 20:51:14 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Well, as Mary & Joseph weren't born in late 20thC Western society... then no... why should their lack of pre-marital sex automatically mean he was gay??
Even now, not all couples have had sex before they marry (only most of them).
It depends on the social norms of their culture. Until Victorian times, British couples were EXPECTED to have conceived their first child before marriage, to satisfy each family that both individuals were fertile. Even in the prudish Victorian era, many couples were expecting by the time of their wedding. However, in the middle east at that time, a woman could be stoned to death if her husband later accused her of not being a virgin at marriage and her family couldn't provide proof to the contrary. Sounds like reason enough to me to keep my legs firmly crossed until the wedding night!!
2007-11-26 20:54:13 · answer #7 · answered by candolim_imp 2 · 3⤊ 1⤋
First off things were much different back then. While people did just have sex, generally it was only between a married man and woman, and generally only to create life.
Mary and Joseph were not married when she got pregnant though. Hence her being a virigin.
BTW why are you calling her the virgin mary? She did eventually have sex, and her and joseph had kids together. Have you not read your bible? Jesus had brothers.
2007-11-26 20:47:48 · answer #8 · answered by evil_kandykid 5 · 5⤊ 1⤋
I will rise to the defence of my patron, St. Joseph. Your question is offensive AND asinine! Joseph was celibate. He respected Mary's desire to remain a virgin. They were not a normal married couple in the sense we would understand.
To those who speak of "other children" - there were none. If there were WHY would Jesus have commended Mary to John to care for IF he had other siblings? The term "brother" or "sister" in Coine Greek refers also to kinsmen such as cousins. The Catholic and Orthodox Churches assert the perpetual virginity of Mary.
VB8
2007-11-26 20:54:25 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
That's one thing I completely do not agree with the Catholics on. I don't believe Mary stayed a virgin after Jesus was born, and there's no reason (nor scriptural evidence) to believe that she did.
So no, I'm sure Joseph was quite heterosexual.
2007-11-26 20:59:59 · answer #10 · answered by The_Cricket: Thinking Pink! 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Mary is described as 'a virgin', a term in the Greek which not only implies what it says but also that she was a young woman in her mid to late teens. Read in the Bible.
2007-11-26 21:58:47 · answer #11 · answered by Rain 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋