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Why did Thomas in John 20:28, fell at Jesus’ feet, exclaiming, "My Lord and my God!"?
(Greek: Ho Kurios mou kai ho Theos mou)
literally, "The Lord of me and the God of me!"

2007-11-26 15:35:25 · 10 answers · asked by RG 5 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

10 answers

What about Luke 23:33-35? "Father, forgive them; they no not what they do." If Christ is God, why didn't He just forgive them?

What about Matthew 7: 20-22? Or Matthew 26:41-43? Or Mark 14:35-37? Or Matthew 3:14-17?

2007-11-27 03:01:09 · answer #1 · answered by Dublin Ducky 5 · 1 0

You seem to feel this is some sort of contradiction. We don't see it that way at all. Jesus was and is God (John 1:!), yet he is not the Father (John 1:1, 18, 14:28, 10, Luke 22:42, etc.). Both he and the Father are spirit, and they are holy, and they are unified in purpose, but they are not the same.

And what will you say to Jesus' brothers and sisters in the resurrection? That they too are not the sons and daughters of God because, according to some misguided men, God can only be three persons?

The Word of God doesn't support Trinitarian ideas at all. They are contradicted from Genesis to Revelation. But Trinitarians will not read those Scriptures, because it does not support their preconceived pagan concept of God.

It is apparent that you do not understand the issues in this matter. Study it more deeply. Study from GOD'S Word, not what mere men say.

2007-11-28 22:09:23 · answer #2 · answered by BC 6 · 1 0

There is much information about the trinity and its un-Biblical nature on my website at my profile. This subject is also discussed.

However, even though such discussion on Yahoo always results in a lot of thumbs down and emotionalism-- here is a little about this.
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John 20:28 – Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God. (ASV)

Jesus did not correct Thomas; instead he says that those who do not see and still believe will be blessed (29)

What is interesting is that everybody quotes verse 28, and then goes no further. John who wrote Thomas’ explanation also wrote John 20:31, “but these are written, that ye may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye may have life in his name. (ASV)

It’s somewhat ironic to see verse 28 being used by everybody to prove that Jesus is the Almighty when John right after (31) says that all these things actually prove that he is not God, but the son of God. John also told us that Jesus is “a God” in John 1:1.

Thus there is no objection to Jesus being a god. Jude even tells us that Jesus is our only Lord and owner. Thus to say that Thomas was so caught up with emotion because of his disbelief staring him in his eyes that he exclaims to Jesus “My Lord and my God” is really not surprising. Jesus is a Mighty God, and John 1:1 says, Jesus is a God.

However, never has Jesus been said to be the Almighty God, Jehovah.
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So do you adhere to the straight and even logic of the combined message or do you just take off with one line -- an run like the dickens for the interpretation of error?

Here is John 20:17, (KJV) Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.

So, let us not take one phrase and misuse it when considering the rest of the scriptures that provides us with a viewpoint that is totally in line with the combined teachings about God and Christ.

2007-11-27 13:19:11 · answer #3 · answered by Fuzzy 7 · 0 1

Thomas was an imperfect human and looking at Jesus knowing he is perfect in all ways. He knew Jesus was divine. Jesus also time and time again reminded everyone that no one is greater than his Father. When people wanted to worship him, he had to remind them that it is only his Father that must be worshipped. Christ Jesus, the only Begotten Son of the God Almighty. No ifs or buts.

2007-11-26 15:54:51 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

The JW answer is supposed to be two separate phrases, or perhaps worshiping Jehovah at Jesus' feet. They will not recognize his equality with the Father.

2007-11-26 16:17:39 · answer #5 · answered by ccrider 7 · 1 0

My question is, why is this SO danged important? The main thing is that Jesus died for our sins, so we can be redeemed by faith, and doing the things he commands us to do so we can have a blessed life. People argue over the whole trinity thing to the point where it causes the severe divisiveness that Jesus talked about when he said, "Do not quarrel amongst yourselves over piddly aspects of doctrine," (grossly paraphrased, but you get my drift). Arguments like this ACTUALLY cause people to leave the church entirely. I think that's stupid.

2007-11-26 15:43:57 · answer #6 · answered by Angie 4 · 3 1

Because Thomas knew who Jesus was and is.

2007-11-26 15:39:30 · answer #7 · answered by Bible warrior 5 · 6 0

Amen! Thomas is saved, he just believed..

2007-11-26 15:46:52 · answer #8 · answered by ♠ jhun ♠ 6 · 1 0

That was how he saw Jesus, it was his interpretation.

2007-11-26 15:38:55 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

do atheists fit the "anti trini" label?

don't believe in god, save....Me

2007-11-26 15:38:40 · answer #10 · answered by voice_of_reason 6 · 0 1

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