Why in the Douay-Rheims Bible do you change the his to her? Why do you change this verse from masculine to feminine?
Genesis 3:15 And I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your seed and her Seed; He will bruise your head, and you shall bruise His heel. (Greek Literal version of the Bible)
Gen 3:15 I will put enmities between thee and the woman, and thy seed and her seed: she shall cursh thy head, and thou shalt lie in wait for her heel. (DRB)
2007-11-26
13:00:38
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14 answers
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Bible warrior
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Darnell - No. But this is an important change. This is the first prophecy of Jesus. By changing it to her you remove that prophecy.
2007-11-26
13:05:55 ·
update #1
daljack - I disagree about Jesus not speaking at all in Genesis but that is not what I mean. This prophecies the coming of Jesus and Him crushing the head of Satan at the cross.
2007-11-26
13:08:31 ·
update #2
DougLawrence - Actually the original is masculine and in every version except the DRB it is masculine.
2007-11-26
14:35:46 ·
update #3
A note in the DRB says: She shall crush. . .Ipsa, the woman; so divers of the fathers read this place, conformably to the Latin: others read it ipsum, viz., the seed. The sense is the same: for it is by her seed, Jesus Christ, that the woman crushes the serpent's head. http://www.catholicfirst.com/thefaith/bible/genesis.cfm
The modern New American Bible (NAB) says: "I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring and hers; He will strike at your head, while you strike at his heel."
A more exact rendering of the sacred writer's words would be, "They will strike . . . at their heels."
The collective noun offspring (all the descendants of the woman) can be he or she but they might be more correct.
However, later theology saw in this passage more than unending hostility between snakes and men.
The serpent was regarded as the devil (Wisdom 2:24; John 8:44; Rev 12:9; 20:2), whose eventual defeat seems implied in the contrast between head and heel.
Because "the Son of God appeared that he might destroy the works of the devil" (1 John 3:8), the passage can be understood as the first promise of a Redeemer for fallen mankind.
The woman's offspring then is primarily Jesus Christ.
With love in Christ.
2007-11-26 17:51:40
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answer #1
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answered by imacatholic2 7
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Following is what is from the New American Bible, which is the translation used in Catholic liturgies:
"I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring and hers; He will strike at your head, while you strike at his heel."
It was not changed to feminine in this translation.
2007-11-26 21:32:03
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answer #2
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answered by Sldgman 7
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The original language can be properly tranlsated both ways, and that is not an accident.
Only late day protestants fail to understand the real reason.
2007-11-26 21:45:52
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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O.K., are you going to start at the beginning and go through the whole bible? I'm just thinking about how much bandwidth will be wasted comparing verse for verse the differences between the two books.
2007-11-26 21:03:42
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answer #4
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answered by Darnell 2
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Brother Edge, Im sitting on the edge of my seat waiting to hear what will be said . Where are you Catholic Crusader? Good question!
2007-11-26 21:05:30
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Hmmm, this is news to me?
But, I don't have a DRB
2007-11-26 21:06:10
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answer #6
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answered by Higgy Baby 7
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oh I cant wait to see what they have to say . my guess is they had the first church so they are correct. LOL this is how they answer most of the questions
2007-11-26 21:05:54
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answer #7
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answered by mairszee 3
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This is a great question brother.
I hope they do not refer this to Mary who they try to keep forever virgin.
2007-11-26 21:54:41
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answer #8
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answered by Nina, BaC 7
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Semantics. Pure semantics. Let's fight over translations in a book of fairy tales.
2007-11-27 13:15:40
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answer #9
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answered by timbers 5
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In Genesis Jesus doesn't speak at all.
2007-11-26 21:07:21
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answer #10
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answered by daljack -a girl 7
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