I have a question on Mary's purification?

Question

Why was a woman to go through this purification? Was it because she would bleed after giving birth? I have read Leviticus 12, but I do not really see why this was to be so.

Well fireball seems you know which Mary I am talking about. So Leviticus is where it talks about the purification, not Mary.

Answer 1

Yes, it was because she bled whilst giving birth, as do all women. The Mosaic law served as a protection for the woman because no man was to touch her until after the purification rite. This gave her body time to heal after the birth. This lets us know that Joseph did not have sexual intercourse with Mary until after her purification. Thereafter we read in scripture of Jesus' brothers and sisters.

Answer 2

Like a lot of Levitical laws, one needs to know background in order to understand them- and some, like the command about mixing fibers, we don't understand, though there's every reason to suppose that the Israelites understood them well. This is yet another reason for treating Mosaic Law, including the Decalogue, as outmoded, as law. The principles may of course remain- murder is still wrong, as it was before Moses.

The ancients surrounding Israel, of Babylonia, Persia, Egypt and the Hittites, and later and those of Greece, all regarded semen and menstrual emissions as precious, life-giving substances, but if they were wasted, they represented death, and were thus unclean. Afterbirth was similarly regarded. It would have been shaming to Israel to fail to have its own laws in these matters. There was no sin attached to childbirth, and if there is no social disapprobation of ignoring purification, as now applies, there is no need to continue with it.
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Answer 3

The first born had to be redeemed by law and at the same occasion the mothers were purified. Just like Jesus was baptized to teach us the need to obey God's law and give good example to others, so Mary most pure though she needed no purification as she is purity itself, She was to teach us to obey God's law always.

Answer 4

Read Leviticus 15:25-33.

Remember also that God declared that blood is not to be spilled, because the life is in it. Symbolically, this was God's way of showing the Jewish people that they were to abstain from violence and hold life sacred.

Answer 5

According to Jewish law, which encodes a very primitive taboo, a woman is "impure" after having given birth. It's a contradiction of the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception and lifelong sinlessness of Mary for her to have undergone the ritual. Apologists say it was to give an outward impression of conforming to the Law, even though in her case it was not necessary.

Answer 6

i dont see how Levit 12 would have Mary in it....she was in the New Test.. what are you talking of??? best to be more clear...im not reading tht whole chapt right now..

Answer 7

This was part of the holy Jewish ceremonial law, under which a women was ritually unclean, though not necessarily morally unclean, and besides fulfilling practical purpose (bonding with the infants, etc.), it also served, as did dietary laws, as a prefigurement of Christ and New Covenant realities. (Eph 1:7) "In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace;"

See here regarding such prefigurements: http://peacebyjesus.witnesstoday.org/lawandgrace.html

The women's post birth purification time and healing also prevented her husband from having relations with her, but while Mary was a virgin, she did not stay that way.

(Mat 1:25) "And [Joseph] knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS."

But as for those who make claims for Mary's sinlessness, the Bible expressly affirms that "all have sinned" (Rm. 3:23), "For there is not a just man upon earth, that doeth good, and sinneth not" (Eccl 7:20), "And enter not into judgment with thy servant: for in thy sight shall no man living be justified" (Psa 143:2), and when we have an exception to a major norm the Holy Spirit makes it clear, as it does regarding Christ, "who did no sin" (1Pt. 2:22), but which is not the case with Mary's sinlessness (and who required a Savior": LK. 1:47), but such requires reading ones desired interpretation into the text (eisegesis).

Moreover, Mary is indicated as failing in her motherhood by standing with Jesus brethren who did not believe in Him (Jn. 7:5) outside He was holding an audience, and seeking to speak to Him, which Scripture does not say He did but placed all obedient brethren as his mother, and brethren (Mt. 12:46-50).

Finally, the Spirit of God is no less sinless than Christ, and makes one "highly favoured" who have Him (same word Eph. 1:6), but which most Catholics do not, as they officially and effectually are taught to partly trust in their own works and those (presumed) powers of the church for worthiness of eternal life, rather than the mercy of God and the blood of Christ. To their own sad damnation.

And who insult the great high priest by praying to created Heavenly beings, rather than coming directly to His "throne of grace, that we may obtain mercy, and find grace to help in time" (Heb. 4:16).

Salvation is a narrow way, that requires us to be realize in our deepest heart that we are unworthy sinners before an infinitely holy and perfectly just God, and are utterly unable to either escape Hell nor gain Heaven on the merit of our works nor the powers of a church, and thus we must come directly (not thru Mary) to the Son of God sent from the Father to be :the propitiation [perfect and final payment] for our sins" and the "Savior of the world" (1Jn. 4:10, 14).

(2 Tim 1:9) "Who hath saved us, and called us with an holy calling, not according to our works, but according to his own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began,"

(Acts 3:19) "Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord;"

Answer 8

No because she was blessed by God.
And she was to be mother of God, even if she pledged her virginity to God.

Answer 9

Mythical belief tends to lead people to strange tradition.

Read Numbers 5 to see what probably happened when Joseph found out she was pregnant.

Answer 10

the whole story was built on a woman who lied lol! you would have thought that everyone would have known how manipulative women can be sometimes, and also, can you blaim her, she would have been stoned to death if she told them that somebody else gave her that loving man-hammer touch that wasnt her husband