English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Was Mary conceived without sin? YES. This is believed by the Catholics, the Eastern Orthodox, the Coptics - in fact the only Christians who DON'T believe it are that vocal minority of Christians, the protestants, who have only been around 500 of the 2000 years of Christianity.

When discussing the Immaculate Conception, an implicit reference may be found in the angel’s greeting to Mary. The angel Gabriel said, "Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you" (Luke 1:28). The phrase "full of grace" is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene. It therefore expresses a characteristic quality of Mary.

The traditional translation, "full of grace," is better than the one found in many recent versions of the New Testament, which give something along the lines of "highly favored daughter." Mary was indeed a highly favored daughter of God, but the Greek implies more than that (and it never mentions the word for "daughter").

2007-11-26 03:40:53 · 26 answers · asked by Catholic Crusader 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

The grace given to Mary is at once permanent and of a unique kind. Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning "to fill or endow with grace." Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates that Mary was graced in the past but with continuing effects in the present. So, the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angel’s visit. In fact, Catholics hold, it extended over the whole of her life, from conception onward. She was in a state of sanctifying grace from the first moment of her existence.

I STRONGLY suggest people read this page:
http://www.catholic.com/library/Immaculate_Conception_and_Assum.asp

2007-11-26 03:41:13 · update #1

26 answers

Was the Virgin Mary the Immaculate Conception?
It is the conception of a child between two people who should no longer be able to conceive children. What is the Immaculate Conception? It is an even more incredible miracle. Mary, the special woman who is going to give birth to Jesus, is conceived in Her mother’s womb without the stain of Original Sin.

How do we inherit Original Sin — the sin of Adam and Eve who disobeyed the Lord? We get it through our parents’ DNA! It's in our blood! And Original Sin is nothing more than the disobedient nature of mankind (Romans 5:19). We have been given free will and we can choose to do things we know God does not like or want us to do.
The Scriptures — the consistent original Scriptures — are very clear as to what God’s Strength said to Mary: “HAIL, FULL OF GRACE, THE LORD IS WITH THEE!”

W e ARE NOT full of God’s grace. We are sinners. But if you were full of God’s grace, what does that mean? Does that mean you have sin in you?


To be full of God’s grace, is it even possible for you to have sin in you?

If we were all full of God’s grace, would the world be in the shape its in? In fact, we don’t have all of God’s grace specifically because of ORIGINAL SIN. It is impossible for us to be full of grace, because we carry the stain of Adam’s rebellion in us.

With Mary, God granted — out of His own good pleasure — all of His grace to Mary.

Now why would He do this? In fact, who else in the Bible, besides Mary, was ever declared to be full of God’s grace? The answer: no one! Only Mary was declared “full of grace.”

So we need to look at the Old Covenant to understand why the Lord HAD to do this to Mary!

Do you remember the Ark of the Covenant? What was in the Ark? The 10 Commandments. Are not the 10 Commandments the Word of the Lord? What happened to people who in sinfulness touched the Ark of the Covenant with the Word of God in it? They died!


Now it is impossible to be anything but reasonable in reviewing this fact and applying it to the New Covenant. Is Jesus the Word of God? Is Jesus sinless and holy? Who is going to carry Jesus in Her womb?

If Mary has sin in Her, what will happen when God infuses His Holy Spirit in Her and the Word of God takes residence in Her womb? Wouldn’t She be consumed like those who touched the Ark of the Covenant?

Since Mary is going to carry the Word of God within Her for nine months as the New Ark of the Covenant, She CANNOT have sin within Her or She will be consumed by the Holy Spirit!

In addition, in order for Jesus NOT to inherit Original Sin, God stopped this generational process in Mary so that the Blood Jesus receives from Her is PURE and untainted with sin.
5 months ago


im·mac·u·late (-mky-lt) KEY

ADJECTIVE:

Impeccably clean; spotless. See Synonyms at clean.
Free from stain or blemish; pure.
Free from fault or error: an immaculate record.
Having no markings.


That is Mary. Born Immaculately

2007-11-26 06:04:02 · answer #1 · answered by tebone0315 7 · 1 1

Yes Muslims believe in the Immaculate Conception. This is found in the Surah Chapter 19;1-98

2016-05-26 00:21:50 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

You know I love you....but - if you are going to talk about other Church bodies (i.e., Orthodox, Anglican) - you really ought to get your facts straight.

As for the Eastern Orthodox, you are mistaken.

"The Orthodox church does not accept the Catholic dogma of 1854 -- the dogma of the immaculate conception of the Virgin, in the sense that she was exempt at birth from original sin. This would separate her from the human race, and she would then have been unable to transmit to her Son humanity. But Orthodoxy does not admit in the all-pure Virgin any individual sin, for that would be unworthy of the dignity of the Mother of God." Sergius Bulgakov, The Orthodox Church. Crestwood: St Vladimir's Seminary Press, 1997.

Mary was sinless...but not as the Roman Church says.

You talk about "only being around..." so long - but look at your own Church's dogma...

The Immaculate Conception was solemnly defined as a dogma by Pope Pius IX in his constitution Ineffabilis Deus, published December 8, 1854 (the Latins' Feast of the Immaculate Conception).

THAT'S ONLY 150 YEARS AGO!!

That HARDLY fits in with the Vincentian Canon of "always, everywhere and by all", now does it!!???!!!

From 1483, Pope Sixtus IV had left Roman Catholics free to believe that Mary was subject to original sin or not, after having introduced the celebration; this freedom had been reiterated by the Council of Trent.

2007-11-26 03:53:28 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 3 4

As Father K said, you are mistaken about the official stance of the Holy Orthodox Church.

In fact, after looking at some of the comments you have previously made, it seems you are frequently mistaken.

I'm sure the Coptics can speak for themselves, too, and don't really need your help.

As for the Protestants, they are sincere in their beliefs and, right or wrong, are not going to be persuaded by this in-your-face insulting arrogance that you project on behalf of Catholics.

I recommend to you (and to everyone) the parable of the pharisee and the publican.

2007-11-26 04:18:08 · answer #4 · answered by james p 5 · 3 3

first of all the bible states that thru Adam and Eve's sin in the Garden of Eden sin came into the world Genesis 3 and so JESUS the second Adam became our salvation
1 Corinthians 15:45. so here we see a paradox Mary was 100 percent humans born of father and mother who are desendents of Adam and Eve so therefore she was born into sin and only thru JESUS CHRIST will all be made clean

2007-11-26 03:54:40 · answer #5 · answered by gustvh2001 3 · 1 2

and, Noah found Grace in the eyes of the Lord also...therefore...why then, doesn't the catholics pray to St. Noah? Or, Why hasn't Noah been "idolized" as mary has, and "prayed to, just as much? (I think you guys have "over-looked this, and are commiting a sin!)see, Noah had children also..and, their ancestors could also be here today at the Vatican and ruling the world! Maybe! Mary was a decendent of Noah! "Peace!"

2007-11-26 03:49:57 · answer #6 · answered by Mr. "Diamond" 6 · 2 4

Why did God need to send an angel to get Mary in the mood? Why wasn't it adultry if she was already married to Joseph? Why does God get away with impregnating his 'daughter? As you can see I asked too many questions in church! Not getting any real answers,I went on to find the TRUTH! Religions were created in the absence of Science as a way to explain away the fears of the unknown!

2007-11-26 03:51:42 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 3

the precept that Mary was conceived without sin indicates that Mary's mother was "visited" by the "who"??? to accomplish this.... why would there be no mentions of any of this within the Bible??? of May's mother?? of Mary's other siblings....

the prophecies point forward to the birth of the Messiah by a virgin.....


most people worship Jesus...


is there going to be a change from Catholicism to maryism??

2007-11-26 03:56:18 · answer #8 · answered by coffee_pot12 7 · 0 2

I've tried pointing that one out to people myself--they don't get it and their knowledge of the scripture is appalling on the subject, but yes, Saint Anne also had an immaculate conception when she concieved Mary

2007-11-26 03:47:37 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2 3

Jesus notably called his mother "woman", and twice;
And neither Jn 2:4 nor Jn 19:26 were complimentary.
The woman, being deceived, was in the transgression.
The woman shall say Amen amen to blessed + cursed.
Therefore the head of the woman is the man(not dec'd),
and the head of every man is Christ(the end of the law),
and the head of Christ is God(Grace).

So then we'll go with grace instead of law law.

The GRACE of our Lord Jesus Christ with you all. Amen.

2007-11-26 03:49:52 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 4

fedest.com, questions and answers