2007-11-26 02:42:58 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The KJV is copyrighted in the UK where the Queen owns the copyright.
In the USA copyrights lasted for 38 years and could be renewed for 38 years.
So the copyright on the KJV ran out long before 1776.
US Copyright laws were recently changed to last for the lifetime of the author plus 50 years.
How would that apply to a translation done in the year 1611?
Pastor Art
2007-11-26 02:53:59 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
the KJV is not different from other versions--it was and is a copyrighted translation by the crown of the United Kingdom.Translations of the Bible are copyrighted - not the Bible itself. You can find the MSS that you want to use and translate them yourself and make your own Bible if you desire and you can own the copyright. GODS words cannot be copyrighted but if you add or subtract or change then you can copyright,England did not copyright the kjv to protect it becouse GODS words were already protected by GOD so that narrows it down to either it being changed or England is making money off GODS word and they are corrupt the same as the rest of the world,i use the kjv but if you look at it you will see,why would GOD have a country like England make a translation and put a copyright protection on his word when he can do it and he did,something is not right here.
2015-06-13 11:43:47 · answer #2 · answered by Robert Frederick 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The KJV of the bible is not copyrighted because doing so would limit its utilization. True to what everybody is saying, copyright office is still not existent during those times. It was published 1611. Who can claim such magnificient work of 80 scholars of the Bible , in translating it into understandable terms, and yet retaining its literary splendor?
For a Bible to have fidelity, it does not need a copyright. It must be copied right.
2007-11-26 03:05:19 · answer #3 · answered by stilot 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In England is under copyright forever, but anywhhere else it isn't under copyright, it was translated in 1611, long before America.
2007-11-26 02:58:09 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
How can it be copyrighted? Nobody owns the Bible, there is no author and what would be the benefit anyway.
2007-11-26 02:57:27 · answer #5 · answered by LillyB 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was translated before copyright laws and even if it weren't, copyrights run out after a certain amount of time.
2007-11-26 02:49:17 · answer #6 · answered by Eiliat 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
It was produced before the notion of "copyright." The idea of authors owning their works developed in the mid 19th Century.
2007-11-26 02:47:11 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 2⤋
It was written prior to copyright laws.
2007-11-26 02:46:21 · answer #8 · answered by rico3151 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
any Bible would now be considered public domain.
Except of course those written by L Ron Hubbard & Co.
2007-11-26 02:48:19 · answer #9 · answered by Marc P, Fundie's Bane 6 · 3⤊ 0⤋
even if it were, wouldn't the copyright have expired, say, about 300 years ago?
2007-11-26 02:46:45 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋