People who don’t have anyone for them don’t survive
People who don’t survive don’t have anyone for them
2007-11-25 16:02:18 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
So I said the first statement to a that same girl who I really like. She had a friend who committed suicide, and she took it as if I said the second statement, thus implying she was not there for him. That is not what I meant at all. How the hell do I explain this to her?!
2007-11-25 16:15:45 · update #1
No; the first one is saying that they don't survive because they have no one for them. The second is saying is saying that they don't survive, but not necessarily that not haviong anyone for them is the cause.
2007-11-25 16:06:09 · answer #1 · answered by shadowfaxngc 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, those do not mean the same thing. A person who feels isolated and abandoned may succumb to that; it's called failure to thrive. Yet some people have an extensive, attentive, and caring support group of family and friends, but do not survive, all the same.
2007-11-26 00:07:51 · answer #2 · answered by claudiacake 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
2 different statements:
1) the first says: those who are alone dont survive and the 2) is saying those who dont survive dont have anyone
2007-11-26 00:06:41 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
i think it means if you don't have a support system and people that believe in you, you will not be as successful as if you have someone who does believe in you and helps and gives you advice and stuff...It's always better to have someone to help you and believe in you than to do it alone. I think when someone else is also in the picture with you, you're more likely to do something rather than being alone and debating it. Someone's there to push you so to say....
2007-11-26 00:07:06 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, and no. the actual statements are different, but the outcome of them is basically the same.
2007-11-26 00:05:53 · answer #5 · answered by Scarlett Drawers 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Slightly tricky question, but yes, I think they do have the same definition. Of course the only difference is that one of them is in past tense, while the other is future.
2007-11-26 00:07:02 · answer #6 · answered by Synfan280 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
not necessarily. because not all people who don't survive don't have any one for them. some do.
2007-11-26 00:07:02 · answer #7 · answered by MJ247 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No,because the statements are reversed.
2007-11-26 00:04:16 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
No, it is actually tricky because, you reverse the action and the reaction.
2007-11-26 00:05:58 · answer #9 · answered by El_Estudiante 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
no peoplecause you can not survive for other reasons
2007-11-26 00:04:52 · answer #10 · answered by gjsfjsfk 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋