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I still have not got a decent answer from you folks....
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=AtCWoN7TxdXEt1yXEvVnF.vsy6IX;_ylv=3?qid=20071124021840AAvZT4A



or repeated below:

How is it that the prophet Jeremiah who was mentioned in the Bible that he was sanctified in his mother's womb (Jer 1:5 Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee; and before thou camest forth out of the womb I sanctified thee, and I ordained thee a prophet unto the nations); yet Jeremiah died of his sins.


1) Where in the Bible that said that Mary, the mother of Jesus, was sanctified in her mother's womb?
2) Even if she is sanctified in her mother's womb, how come your God is preferential that Mary is immaculately conceived, but the prophet Jeremiah with Scripture warrant was not immaculately conceived??
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2007-11-25 00:08:53 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

11 answers

The doctrine of The Immaculate Conception is a false doctrine, & so is the doctrine of The Assumption, amongst others.

The Bible tells us that Mary was one of the Lord's disciples on the day of Pentecost, 50 days after the Lord's Resurrection, & she, too, was filled with the Holy Spirit like the rest of the 119 disciples.

"These all continued with one accord in prayer and supplication, with the women, and Mary, the mother of Jesus, and with his brethren." (Acts 1:14 KJV)

2007-11-25 00:24:38 · answer #1 · answered by cataliz <SFCU> 5 · 1 4

Mary herself was not conceived by the Holy Ghost as she was just an ordinary human and conceived in the normal way like you and I. Isn't it interesting that whilst the Lord appeared to many people in the Bible He never appeared to Mary? When the angel appeared to Mary and told her of the coming birth of Jesus he called her blessed which simply means "happy." It was never the Lord's intention for Mary to be made the focal point of the arrival of Jesus but for Jesus Himself to be the focal point yet the Catholics have set Mary up as some sort of "miraculous woman" Mary, whilst chosen by the Lord to have the baby Jesus was just another woman that the Lord used to fulfill prophesy and nothing more and yet today people are rambling and babbling some "Hail Mary" chant like a broken record. We are told by Jesus Himself that we are not to use repetition and vain babbling when addressing our heavenly Father.

2007-11-25 10:19:55 · answer #2 · answered by mandbturner3699 5 · 0 0

You should not be looking for the "decent answer" because your idea of "decent" is subjective. Instead, look for the Truthful answer:

Mary - the Immaculate Ark of the New Covenant
Exodus 25:11-21 - the ark of the Old Covenant was made of the purest gold for God's Word. Mary is the ark of the New Covenant and is the purest vessel for the Word of God made flesh.

2 Sam. 6:7 - the Ark is so holy and pure that when Uzzah touched it, the Lord slew him. This shows us that the Ark is undefiled. Mary the Ark of the New Covenant is even more immaculate and undefiled, spared by God from original sin so that she could bear His eternal Word in her womb.

1 Chron. 13:9-10 - this is another account of Uzzah and the Ark. For God to dwell within Mary the Ark, Mary had to be conceived without sin. For Protestants to argue otherwise would be to say that God would let the finger of Satan touch His Son made flesh. This is incomprehensible.

1 Chron. 15 and 16 - these verses show the awesome reverence the Jews had for the Ark - veneration, vestments, songs, harps, lyres, cymbals, trumpets.

Luke 1:39 / 2 Sam. 6:2 - Luke's conspicuous comparison's between Mary and the Ark described by Samuel underscores the reality of Mary as the undefiled and immaculate Ark of the New Covenant. In these verses, Mary (the Ark) arose and went / David arose and went to the Ark. There is a clear parallel between the Ark of the Old and the Ark of the New Covenant.

Luke 1:41 / 2 Sam. 6:16 - John the Baptist / King David leap for joy before Mary / Ark. So should we leap for joy before Mary the immaculate Ark of the Word made flesh.

Luke 1:43 / 2 Sam. 6:9 - How can the Mother / Ark of the Lord come to me? It is a holy privilege. Our Mother wants to come to us and lead us to Jesus.

Luke 1:56 / 2 Sam. 6:11 and 1 Chron. 13:14 - Mary / the Ark remained in the house for about three months.

Rev 11:19 - at this point in history, the Ark of the Old Covenant was not seen for six centuries (see 2 Macc. 2:7), and now it is finally seen in heaven. The Jewish people would have been absolutely amazed at this. However, John immediately passes over this fact and describes the "woman" clothed with the sun in Rev. 12:1. John is emphasizing that Mary is the Ark of the New Covenant and who, like the Old ark, is now worthy of veneration and praise. Also remember that Rev. 11:19 and Rev. 12:1 are tied together because there was no chapter and verse at the time these texts were written.

Rev 12:1 - the "woman" that John is describing is Mary, the Ark of the New Covenant, with the moon under her feet, and on her head a crown of twelve stars. Just as the moon reflects the light of the sun, so Mary, with the moon under her feet, reflects the glory of the Sun of Justice, Jesus Christ.

Rev. 12:17 - this verse tells us that Mary's offspring are those who keep God's commandments and bear testimony to Jesus. This demonstrates, as Catholics have always believed, that Mary is the Mother of all Christians.

Rev. 12:2 - Some Protestants argue that, because the woman had birth pangs, she was a woman with sin. However, Revelation is apocalyptic literature unique to the 1st century. It contains varied symbolism and multiple meanings of the woman (Mary, the Church and Israel). The birth pangs describe both the birth of the Church and Mary's offspring being formed in Christ. Mary had no birth pangs in delivering her only Son Jesus.

Isaiah 66:7 - for example, we see Isaiah prophesying that before she (Mary) was in labor she gave birth; before her pain came upon her she was delivered of a son (Jesus). This is a Marian prophecy of the virgin birth of Jesus Christ.

Gal 4:19 - Paul also describes his pain as birth pangs in forming the disciples in Christ. Birth pangs describe formation in Christ.

Rom. 8:22 - also, Paul says the whole creation has been groaning in travail before the coming of Christ. We are all undergoing birth pangs because we are being reborn into Jesus Christ.

Jer. 13:21 - Jeremiah describes the birth pangs of Israel, like a woman in travail. Birth pangs are usually used metaphorically in the Scriptures.

Hos. 13:12-13 - Ephraim is also described as travailing in childbirth for his sins. Again, birth pangs are used metaphorically.

Micah 4:9-10 - Micah also describes Jerusalem as being seized by birth pangs like a woman in travail.

Rev. 12:13-16 - in these verses, we see that the devil still seeks to destroy the woman even after the Savior is born. This proves Mary is a danger to satan, even after the birth of Christ. This is because God has given her the power to intercede for us, and we should invoke her assistance in our spiritual lives.

2007-11-26 12:09:46 · answer #3 · answered by Daver 7 · 0 0

It’s important to understand what the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception is and what it is not. Some people think the term refers to Christ’s conception in Mary’s womb without the intervention of a human father; but that is the Virgin Birth. Others think the Immaculate Conception means Mary was conceived "by the power of the Holy Spirit," in the way Jesus was, but that, too, is incorrect. The Immaculate Conception means that Mary, whose conception was brought about the normal way, was conceived without original sin or its stain—that’s what "immaculate" means: without stain. The essence of original sin consists in the deprivation of sanctifying grace, and its stain is a corrupt nature. Mary was preserved from these defects by God’s grace; from the first instant of her existence she was in the state of sanctifying grace and was free from the corrupt nature original sin brings.

When discussing the Immaculate Conception, an implicit reference may be found in the angel’s greeting to Mary. The angel Gabriel said, "Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you" (Luke 1:28). The phrase "full of grace" is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene. It therefore expresses a characteristic quality of Mary.

The traditional translation, "full of grace," is better than the one found in many recent versions of the New Testament, which give something along the lines of "highly favored daughter." Mary was indeed a highly favored daughter of God, but the Greek implies more than that (and it never mentions the word for "daughter"). The grace given to Mary is at once permanent and of a unique kind. Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning "to fill or endow with grace." Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates that Mary was graced in the past but with continuing effects in the present. So, the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angel’s visit. In fact, Catholics hold, it extended over the whole of her life, from conception onward. She was in a state of sanctifying grace from the first moment of her existence.

If you want more scriptual support for the Immaculate Conception, read this link:

http://www.catholic.com/library/Immaculate_Conception_and_Assum.asp

2007-11-25 08:14:06 · answer #4 · answered by Catholic Crusader 3 · 3 4

Mary was concieved without sin.... the sin having been removed by a one time special grace using the same sacrifice Jesus made for the rest of us...only on "credit" so to speak. This also must be understood that it was done....not for the benefit of Mary...but for Jesus Christ Himself...as He could not be formed and carried in a "sinful vessel", being the second person of the Holy Trinity and therefore God Himself. The Holy Spirit (God) formed the Christ child within her...and again...sin cannot exist in the prescence of God.

Ultimately that is the reason for the Doctrine. Biblical basis teaching us that sin cannot exist in the actual prescence of God. See it spelled out clearly in the Book of Revelation where it says No Unclean Thing Can Enter the Kingdom.

2007-11-25 08:18:10 · answer #5 · answered by Augustine 6 · 2 5

She is still.... Called the Virgin Mary..... even though She had.... besides JESUS...... 4-sons and at least 2-daughters!

SOMETHING.... Is Wrong... with That Teaching !

(Matthew 13:55-56) Is not this the carpenter's son? Is not his mother called Mary? And his brothers, James and Joses and Simon and Judas,

(Mat 13:56) and his sisters, are they not all with us? Then from where does this man have all these things?

Thanks for Asking ! RR

2007-11-25 08:13:26 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 4

You're confusing yourself again.

Here's a question for you: What about the guy who went up into heaven on a charriot of fire?

2007-11-25 08:15:38 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

the way of God is not the way of man...
pray for wisdom and understanding to get
to where you are going in this case.

2007-11-25 08:13:56 · answer #8 · answered by sexyangel 2 · 2 2

"What is your religion my son?" inquired the Archbishop of Rheims.
"Pardon, monseigneur," replied Rochebriant; "I am ashamed of it."
"Then why do you not become an atheist?"
"Impossible! I should be ashamed of atheism."
"In that case, monsieur, you should join the Protestants."

2007-11-25 08:17:23 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2 4

Don't ask them to justify their faith which is not found in the Bible, it is not fair.

2007-11-25 08:12:45 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 4 4

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