Roman Catholics.........?

Question

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How is it that the prophet Jeremiah who was mentioned in the Bible that he was sanctified in his mother's womb (Jer 1:5 Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee; and before thou camest forth out of the womb I sanctified thee, and I ordained thee a prophet unto the nations); yet Jeremiah died of his sins.


1) Where in the Bible that said that Mary, the mother of Jesus, was sanctified in her mother's womb?
2) Even if she is sanctified in her mother's womb, how come your God is preferential that Mary is immaculately conceived, but the prophet Jeremiah with Scripture warrant was not immaculately conceived??


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Tiger Lily....


if .....same God and same Jesus.......you are not upright when reading 2Co 11:4 For if he that cometh preacheth another Jesus, whom we have not preached, or if ye receive another spirit, which ye have not received, or another gospel, which ye have not accepted, ye might well bear with him.

..........after all, the doctrine of immaculate conception was only started about 1854, pope pius 9. Before that, the 'faithful'....have no idea................!!!!

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Answer 1

1) Nowhere, because she wasn't. In fact, she calls God "my Saviour" - now why would she do that if she had no sins to be saved from?
2) Good question.

Answer 2

Through the ages catholics have called her Mary immaculate the dogma was declared in 1854...

"hail,full of grace" what is meant by this is she is above all women created free of sin,exempt from original sin or any stain thereof exactly like Eve(she is the second Eve) except she kept her original state until the end of her life.And just a minor detail she was to be the vessel that would house God the Holy of Holys !

"You will lie in wait of her heel,she shall crush thy head" since you are set strictly on scripture what does God mean by this whilst warning the serpent ? Is there to be a show down between the two which Mary is so belittled by non-catholics ?

If catholics hold her in such high esteem,how much more would we regard God's superiority,infinite goodness,mercy, power,wisdom and justice than any other believer ?

God bless,

JMJ

Answer 3

It’s important to understand what the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception is and what it is not. Some people think the term refers to Christ’s conception in Mary’s womb without the intervention of a human father; but that is the Virgin Birth. Others think the Immaculate Conception means Mary was conceived "by the power of the Holy Spirit," in the way Jesus was, but that, too, is incorrect. The Immaculate Conception means that Mary, whose conception was brought about the normal way, was conceived without original sin or its stain—that’s what "immaculate" means: without stain. The essence of original sin consists in the deprivation of sanctifying grace, and its stain is a corrupt nature. Mary was preserved from these defects by God’s grace; from the first instant of her existence she was in the state of sanctifying grace and was free from the corrupt nature original sin brings.

When discussing the Immaculate Conception, an implicit reference may be found in the angel’s greeting to Mary. The angel Gabriel said, "Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you" (Luke 1:28). The phrase "full of grace" is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene. It therefore expresses a characteristic quality of Mary.

The traditional translation, "full of grace," is better than the one found in many recent versions of the New Testament, which give something along the lines of "highly favored daughter." Mary was indeed a highly favored daughter of God, but the Greek implies more than that (and it never mentions the word for "daughter"). The grace given to Mary is at once permanent and of a unique kind. Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning "to fill or endow with grace." Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates that Mary was graced in the past but with continuing effects in the present. So, the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angel’s visit. In fact, Catholics hold, it extended over the whole of her life, from conception onward. She was in a state of sanctifying grace from the first moment of her existence.

If you want more scriptual support for the Immaculate Conception, read this link:
http://www.catholic.com/library/Immaculate_Conception_and_Assum.asp

Answer 4

As for Jeremiah, he's a prophet(servant),
a "know not" requiring forgiveness:
"forgive them", for they "know not".

Child and Prophet "differ nothing": Gal 4:1.
Both need to be told what to Do and Don't.
Hence the "higher" exhortations are:
- thou art no more a servant, but a son
- be no more children, tossed to & fro

As for Mary, Jesus calls her "woman" twice.
Neither John2:4 nor John19:26 are complimentary.
The woman, being deceived, was in the transgression.
The woman says dble Amen amen to blessed + cursed.

As for Roman Catholic, such is not as catholic.
small c catholic denotes universalism, globalism.
But Big C Roman Catholic denotes Romanism.

King James was small c: catholic,
also called Defender of The Faith,
and the law is not of faith: Gal 3:12.
So KJV Bibles end with grace only.

The GRACE of our Lord Jesus Christ with you all. Amen.

Answer 5

The doctrine or dogma of the immaculate conception is a late development.

Answer 6

We have the same God as Christians and the same Jesus

Edit: so what God and Jesus do we pray to, tell me

Answer 7

Jeremiah was not begotten by way of holy spirit, Jesus was.

Answer 8

Jesus called His mother "woman," not Mother.