Christian scholars see evidence of tampering, especailly with the word "Spirit"?

Question

Delete my questions and I wlll post 10 more like it to show even more error in your books! You know this means war!

Very Important Point: A "Spirit" in the New Testament is a human Prophet. Therefore, Jesus had predicted the comming of a human Prophet (spirit) after him and not the Holy Spirit. Jesus would not have used the word "he" for the Holy Spirit. He would have used "it" instead in John 14:26 above. Read 1 John 4:1-3 below:
"Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world," (1 John 4:1-3)
(also see 1 John 4:6), or an inspired human, for example read 1 Corinthians 2:10, 2 Thessalonians 2:2, ...etc.

In the famous "Anchor Bible" we find the following quote: "The word parakletos is peculiar in the NT to the Johnannine literature. In John ii Jesus is a parakletos (not a title), serving as a heavenly intercessor with the Father ... Christian tradition has identified this figure (Paraclete) as the Holy Spirit, but scholars like Spitta, Delafosse, Windisch, Sasse, Bultmann, and Betz have doubted whether this identification is true to the original picture and have suggested that the Paraclete was once an independent salvific figure, later confused with the Holy Spirit." (The Anchor Bible, Doubleday & Company, Inc, Garden City, N.Y. 1970, Volume 29A, p. 1135)
We are about to see some of the evidence that goes to prove this position.

2) Does the Holy Spirit "speak" or "inspire":
Important Note: The Greek word translated as "hear" in the Biblical verses ("whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak") is the Greek word "akouo" {ak-oo'-o} meaning to perceive sounds. It has, for instance, given us the word "acoustics," the science of sounds. Similarly the verb "to speak" is the Greek verb "laleo" {lal-eh'-o} which has the general meaning "to emit sounds" and the specific meaning "to speak." This verb occurs very frequently in the Greek text of the Gospels. It designates a solemn declaration by Jesus (peace be upon him) during his preachings (For example Matthew 9:18). Obviously these verbs require hearing and speech organs in order to facilitate them. There is a distinct difference between someone "inspiring" something and him "speaking" something. So the Paraclete will "hear" and "speak," not "inspire."

"(God swears) By the star when it falls!: Your comrade (Muhammad) errs not, nor is he deceived; Nor does he speak of (his own) desire. It is naught save a revelation that is revealed (unto him)." (The noble Qur'an, Al-Najm(53):1-4)

Answer 1

Please proceed. I'd like to see what you are talking about.

Answer 2

The spirit of man is the breath of God. Spiritual death for man is separation from God. I have believed this since I was 12 years old. If you have any evidence of tampering I would like to see it.
It is from a nonconfrontational stand that I would also like to see 10 more evidences that show errors in the Bible.

You do a very nice play on words. Well, actually, it is not very nice. Explain to me, please, how it is that Jesus says this "prophet" comes to live inside you and will stay inside you, never leaving. All prophets have gone. Your definitions do not fit past practice nor present reality. Mohammed is gone. He died. He never lived inside anyone. So the word Paraclete must refer to another. The written word existed for six hundred years before the one who twisted word meanings was even born. The Holy Spirit was sent to live within men on the day of Pentecost, fifty days after the resurrection of Christ. He has lived in every Christian since that time and He has never left.
Your next step in argument is to say that a prophet is "one who calls". Mohammad was a merchant and a merchant is one who stands in a marketplace selling his wares as "one who calls". This must mean Mohammed is a prophet. Right? This would be a totally dishonest way to interpret scripture. The calling is quite different for each case, but the word translation becomes a matter of convenience for you. It is obviously clear that you do not understand the definition of "Prophet" or "Paraclete". They are not one and the same. The prophet called out to those who were to hear his message in opposition to them in order to bring them back in line with truth. The Holy Spirit lives within men and calls out to them to comfort and guide them, keeping them on the right path, encouraging them to remain in truth. You are tripping over subtle shades of meaning.
Yes. Jesus did speak of prophets to come. Many of them. He never mentioned that one of them would be sent by God. They would all be false.

Your entire argument did not spring from your own understanding, but is a cut and paste from a website. A suitable rebuttal to the original debate has been made. I leave it to you to read.
http://www.answering-islam.org/Responses/Meherally/integrity.htm

On second thought, I would prefer to not go through the other 10 arguments you wish to make.

Answer 3

evidence where? tampering how? what books. If you want an answer to your question, at least provide the background of what you are talking about.

Answer 4

Ruach & Pneuma - What's not to understand? It's the breath of God.

Answer 5

As the Bible says 'forbear threatening' - doesn't show you in a good light.

Answer 6

You certainly aren't talking about the 100+ scholars I know.

Answer 7

Read the King James Version of the Holy Bible and you will be fine. God protects His Word and it is not bound.

Answer 8

Until you give documentation of what you're talking about, your question makes no sense to me.

Answer 9

Just in the translation to "ghost" which is incorrect.

The translators did their best, no tampering.

Study study.

Answer 10

Proof please?
BB

Answer 11

whoa sparky