English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

"This is what Jehovah has said, the King of Israel and the Repurchaser of him, Jehovah of armies, 'I am the first and I am the last, and beside me there is no God'."

Who is the First and the Last of Isaiah 44:6?

Now read Revelation 1:17 (again from the New World Translation): "And he laid his right hand upon me and said; 'Do not be fearful. I am the First and the Last, and the living one; and I became dead, but look! I am living forever and ever, and I have the keys of death and of Hades'."

Who is the First and the Last of Revelation 1:17?

2007-11-23 04:33:44 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

bibliophile - thanks for sharing that webpage with us - I hope others read it.

2007-11-23 20:26:51 · update #1

15 answers

Hi there.

Well, Princess, I think that you know as well as I that the Lord Jesus' application of the term "the First and the Last" to Himself was an unequivocal claim to deity.

For starters, the term is, by it's very nature, UNIQUE. How many "First's and Last's" can there possibly be?

Regarding the argument by one of your answerer's, that the terms used in Isaiah 44:6 & Revelation 1:17 are grammatically different, and do not have the same significance -

What about Revelation 22:13? According to the Watchtower publication, "Revelation - It's Grand Climax At Hand!", the speaking in the following verse is to be attributed to Jehovah, and NOT Jesus, as many orthodox Christians claim -

"I am the Alpha and the Omega, THE FIRST AND THE LAST, the beginning and the end." (NWT, caps for emphasis)

The Greek translated here as "the first and the last", is the EXACT SAME Greek rendered "the First and the Last" in 1:17, "protos kai eschatos". So, the "grammatical argument" employed by Witnesses' re the verses in Isaiah 44:6 & Revelation 1:17, CANNOT be applied here. Unless, of course, the Watchtower are suggesting that Jehovah also uses a title which signifies that He is "..the first and the last of the people that were dead and resurrected by God directly" (Moises_F). But that wouldn't make sense, would it?

I am aware of at least ONE JW on Yahoo! Answers who concedes that the one speaking in Revelation 22:13 is Jesus. Those JW's who subscribe to this view, are immediately faced with the problem presented to them by Jesus' claim to be the "Alpha and the Omega", in light of what Jehovah says of Himself in Revelation 1:8 (NWT). Therefore, whether JW's accept that the words spoken in 22:13 are those of the Son or the Father, they must - if they are to be honest in their study of the Scriptures - admit that the both of them share at least one grammatically identical, spiritually significant title.

May God be gracious to JW's in delivering them from spiritual deception and guiding them into all HIS truth.

Blessings, Carl.

2007-11-23 21:31:38 · answer #1 · answered by Carlito 3 · 3 2

At Isaiah it's Jehovah.

In Revelation, it's Jesus.

In Isaiah 44:6, Jehovah rightly describes his own position as the one and only almighty God, saying: “I am the first and I am the last, and besides me there is no God.” When Jesus presents himself by the title “the First and the Last,” he is not claiming equality with Jehovah, the Grand Creator. He is using a title properly bestowed on him by God. In Isaiah, Jehovah was making a statement about His unique position as the true God. He is God eternal, and besides him there is indeed no God. (1 Timothy 1:17)

In the original Hebrew at Isaiah 44:6, there is no definite article with the words “first” and “last,” whereas in Jesus’ description of himself in the original Greek at Revelation 1:17, the definite article is found. So, grammatically, Revelation 1:17 indicates a title, whereas Isaiah 44:6 describes Jehovah’s Godship.

EDIT: bibliophile1954- one thing people do not realise or choose to ignore is that Jehovah's Witnesses have been studying the Bible and exposing doctrinal error in false religion for DECADES before the NWT. What Bible were they using then? Another "false" one?

We can preach the same message about Jehovah's Kingdom using ANY Bible translation. Where I live, the first Bible Student came in 1891- Witnesses have grown since then to 146,472 active publishers as of 2006. The complete NWT as translated into the official language here just THIS YEAR!!! What Bible have we been using all this time?

(For details, please check out the 2008 Yearbook of Jehovah's Witnesses, to be published in January, 2008.)

2007-11-23 12:37:59 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 6 4

It doesn’t mean that when Jesus is called “First and Last” that he is automatically Jehovah God. Jesus is called King of kings, which is also the same title that Nebuchadnezzar used. Using the logic that you presented, you are making Nebuchadnezzar God also if that's the case. Dan 2:37

Now regarding "Who is the First and the Last of Isaiah 44:6?"
It clearly states " Jehovah" in that verse! Why are you changing it to Jesus?

Jesus is not Jehovah. Jesus is the Son of Jehovah.


Now, if the Son is Jehovah, the Father is Jehovah and the holy spirit is Jehovah according to the Trinity doctrine, then these THREE PERSONS, are THREE Jehovah.

But the Bible says in Deut 6:4 Listen, O Israel: Jehovah our God is ONE Jehovah.

Notice in Deut 6:4 it used “IS” and only ONE person is involved. If there are three Jehovah then it should have used ARE for THREE persons.

There is ONLY ONE JEHOVAH, who is God Almighty.


Jehovah (YHWH) is Jesus’ Father. Jesus is called the Son of the Most High.(Luke 1:32) and Jehovah is called the Most High(Psalms 83:18).

Jehovah is our Father in heaven.

Isa 63:16 - 16 For you are our Father; although Abraham himself may not have known us and Israel himself may not recognize us, you, O Jehovah, are our Father.

Jesus said at John 20:17 “‘I am ascending to my Father and YOUR Father and to my God and YOUR God.’” Notice Jesus has a God, whom he called “My God” and who is also his Father.

At Luk23:46 it states 46 And Jesus called with a loud voice and said: “Father, into your hands I entrust my spirit.” This was quoted from Psalms 31:5. So you can tell that Jesus called to his Father when he was about to die. “Into your hand I entrust my spirit.” The text continues “You have redeemed me, O Jehovah the God of truth.”

And notice the Bible NEVER says "Jehovah is the Son".

2007-11-23 14:41:04 · answer #3 · answered by trustdell1 3 · 2 1

Sensible question. But are you saying that Jehovah is Jesus? Don't forget Psalm 110:1,2 (Between Ps 108 and Ps 112 somewhere if you have a Catholic Bible) where the King James Version says, "THE LORD sayeth to my Lord, sit at my right hand..." where THE LORD is in all capitals to indicate that in the original language it said, "Jehovah said to my Lord..." Jesus was to sit at Jehovah's right hand, and Jehovah is saying that to Jesus, so Jehovah can't BE Jesus...You can check it in an Exhaustive Concordance at the library, where the original language words are in a dictionary and numbered so we non-hebrew-speaking ordinary folks can find and check them...Regards, Mike

2007-11-23 12:49:06 · answer #4 · answered by Mike M. 6 · 4 1

In Isaiah, Jehovah is describing himself, as the one and only Almighty God.
In Revelation, Jesus is ascribed this title to his own unique resurrection.

2007-11-23 12:55:08 · answer #5 · answered by Everlasting Life 3 · 2 1

You know, I am learning here in R&S that scriptures from the OT has strong connections with scriptures from the NT, like this one. In the OT JHVH God talks, and the NT its Jesus that is telling the SAME as what God is saying. Connection. Jesus is saying the same thing as God but in his present time because then he was dead and now live again forever and ever. You just found a connection to be as they are One and the SAME. Very interesting.

2007-11-23 13:20:17 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 3 2

Isaiah 44:6 God Jehovah is completely sovereign ove time.

Rev 1:17 Jesus Christs speaks of Himself as He who lives and was dead, and is alive forever,referring to His eternal existence,His becoming a man and dying on the cross,and His glorified resurrected state

Jesus Christ is Jehovah!

2007-11-23 15:09:11 · answer #7 · answered by Nina, BaC 7 · 5 4

I would say that it is pretty obviously God in both cases, unless you have trouble with the doctrine of the Trinity, which I suppose atheists, Unitarians and JWs might do.

2007-11-23 13:19:54 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

Bible is corrupted.

Some examples as follows

Who incited David to count the fighting men of Israel?

(a) God did (2 Samuel 24: 1)

(b) Satan did (I Chronicles 2 1:1)


In that count how many fighting men were found in Israel?

(a) Eight hundred thousand (2 Samuel 24:9)

(b) One million, one hundred thousand (I Chronicles 21:5)



How many fighting men were found in Judah?

(a) Five hundred thousand (2 Samuel 24:9)

(b) Four hundred and seventy thousand (I Chronicles 21:5)



God sent his prophet to threaten David with how many years of famine?

(a) Seven (2 Samuel 24:13)

(b) Three (I Chronicles 21:12)



How old was Ahaziah when he began to rule over Jerusalem?

(a) Twenty-two (2 Kings 8:26)

(b) Forty-two (2 Chronicles 22:2)



How old was Jehoiachin when he became king of Jerusalem?

(a) Eighteen (2 Kings 24:8)

(b) Eight (2 Chronicles 36:9)


How long did he rule over Jerusalem?

(a) Three months (2 Kings 24:8)

(b) Three months and ten days (2 Chronicles 36:9)



The chief of the mighty men of David lifted up his spear and killed how many men at one time?

(a) Eight hundred (2 Samuel 23:8)

(b) Three hundred (I Chronicles 11: 11)


When did David bring the Ark of the Covenant to Jerusalem? Before defeating the Philistines or after?

(a) After (2 Samuel 5 and 6)

(b) Before (I Chronicles 13 and 14)


How many pairs of clean animals did God tell Noah to take into the Ark?

(a) Two (Genesis 6:19, 20)

(b) Seven (Genesis 7:2). But despite this last instruction only two pairs went into the ark (Genesis 7:8-9)


When David defeated the King of Zobah, how many horsemen did he capture?

(a) One thousand and seven hundred (2 Samuel 8:4)

(b) Seven thousand (I Chronicles 18:4)


How many stalls for horses did Solomon have?

(a) Forty thousand (I Kings 4:26)

(b) Four thousand (2 chronicles 9:25)

2007-11-23 12:47:28 · answer #9 · answered by nooru 3 · 0 9

Isa 42:8 I am the LORD: that is my name: and my glory will I not give to another, neither my praise to graven images
.
The "Lord", "I am", "alpha and Omega", "first and the last", "the beginning and the end" are all fulfilled in one...Christ. There is no "trinity" just one Christ/God. The early Church knew exactly who Christ/God is...

John 20:28 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.

Act 7:59 And they stoned Stephen, calling upon God, and saying, Lord Jesus, receive my spirit.

Heb 8:10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:

John 10:30 I and my Father are one.
John 10:31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him.
John 10:32 Jesus answered them, Many good works have I showed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?
John 10:33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.

To deny that Christ is God..is to deny the Father that sent him....because they are the same being.

John 8:19 Then said they unto him, Where is thy Father? Jesus answered, Ye neither know me, nor my Father: if ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also.

John 8:23 And he said unto them, Ye are from beneath; I am from above: ye are of this world; I am not of this world.


John 14:6 Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.
John 14:7 If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him.
John 14:8 Philip saith unto him, Lord, show us the Father, and it sufficeth us.
John 14:9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Show us the Father?
John 14:10 Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works

It is obvious that MANY today have the same confusion as the Samaritan woman at the well...

John 4:22 Ye worship ye know not what: we know what we worship: for salvation is of the Jews.
John 4:23 But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshipers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth: for the Father seeketh such to worship him.
John 4:24 God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.

2007-11-23 12:55:19 · answer #10 · answered by Kenneth 4 · 1 4

fedest.com, questions and answers