Jesus did NOT die on a cross, he died on an upright stake, or pole. The greek word commonly used in the Bible to refer to the instrument of Jesus death is "stauros", and that word refers to a stake, a pole, or tree. It, in no shape, refers to a two-beamed piece of wood. The use of a cross in worship is traced to far back before Jesus came to earth as a man and has always been a symbol of false religious worship, and also is linked back to ancient phallic worship.
2007-11-23 02:37:42
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answer #1
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answered by X 7
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In Koine Greek, there is no indefinite article ("a"); in the absence of a definite article ("the") an indefinite article is often rightly assumed, but while there is no definite article in front of "God" in John 1:1, we shouldn't assume an indefinite article. The text reads literally: "Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος." In beginning was the word and the word was with the God, and God was the word. John has done a good job of constructing this sentence so that he both declares Christ to be God while also affirming that Christ and the Father are not the same person. Had he said that the word was THE God, with a definite article, he would have called Jesus and the Father completely the same, which we know is not the case. But if they aren't the same, why not call "the word" (Jesus) another god? Look at the second clause specifically (καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. - and God was the word.) Note that John has put God, not the word, at the beginning of the clause. This is how a speaker of Koine added emphasis to a word, as if to underline it. So John is emphasizing Jesus' Godhood while still separating his personhood from the father, not creating a polytheistic plurality of Gods. Had he switched the order and put "a god" at the end of the clause, then the indefinite article assumption might have been a little more reasonable. The context of the whole of scripture should be an adequate guide to answer the question however, as there is only one God, and there could be no legitimate "a god." The NWT also makes many obvious interpretive errors and should not be trusted in general. For example, it erroneously inserts Jehovah every time the Greek clearly says "lord." This demonstrates the obvious biases of the translators in favor of a certain theological view.
2016-03-22 14:52:19
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Greek Word For Cross
2016-11-08 06:38:15
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Your absolutely right. The Greek word rendered 'cross' in many modern Bible versions(torture stake) is stau.ros'. In classical greek, this word mean merely an upright stake, or pale. Later it also came to be used for an execution stake having a crosspiece. The imperial bible dictionary acknowledges this saying : ' The greek word for cross,(Stau.ros') properly signified a stake, an upright pole, or a piece of paling, on which anything might be hung, or which might be used for impaling(fencing in) a piece of ground. Even amungst the Romans, the crux (from which our 'cross' is derived) appears to have been originally an upright pole. The book 'The Non-Christian cross' by J. D. Parsons says: ' There is not a single sentence in any of the numerous writings forming the New Testament, which, in the original Greek, bears even indirect evidence to the effect that the stauros used in the case of Jesus was other than an ordinary stauros; much less to the effect that it consisted, not of one piece of timber, but of two pieces nailed together in the form of a cross. Is it not a little misleading upon the part of our teachers to translate the word stauros as 'cross' when rendering the Greek documents of the church into our native tongue, and to support that action by putting 'cross' in our lexicons as the meaning of stauros without carefully explaining that that was at any rate not the primary meaning of the word in the days of the apostles, did not become primary significaion till long afterwards, and became so then, if at all, only because despite the absence of corroborative evidence, it was for some reason or other assumed that the particular stauros upon which Jesus was executed had that particular shape'
2007-11-23 02:49:42
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answer #4
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answered by OverTheRainbow 4
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guess that means mormons are "christians" as well--they go door to door with the "good news"---just because u go door to door does NOT mean u share good news. the jw bible is so full of errors its funny. read the ancient prophecies--"HE WILL SPREAD OUT HIS HANDS" jesus was on a cross. even the snake on moses' pole had a cross piece--a snake can only climb a pole, but cannot be still on a pole---a snake must have a cross piece in order to stay put--thats why u see snakes on tree limbs, but never on the trunk on the tree. the passover lamb was roasted on a cross shaped skewer--even the jews acknowledge this. IN THE BEGINNING WAS THE WORD--AND THE WORD WAS WITH GOD AND THE WORD WAS GOD. there is no def article "a" in the greek
2016-04-21 15:51:02
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answer #5
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answered by bo 1
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Jesus stated that just as (exactly, identical) the way Modes lifted up the Serpent in the wilderness, so must (will) the Son of Man be lifted up. Moses lifted up the Serpent on a POLE. When we do 'crosses', we make Jesus a liar and a false prophet. The New Testament also tells us that Idols are DEMON ATTRACTANTS. Besides making Jesus a liar, they attract DEMON ACTIVITY, such as addiction, adultery, suicide, hatred etc. This, among other things is WHY it makes a difference. The Romans crucified 99% of the time on a CRUX SIMPLEX. A wooden post. The Roman Historian Josephus recorded that the Romans crucified over six thousand Essen's on Crux Simplexes. A single wooden post.
2015-06-21 05:36:13
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answer #6
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answered by ise 1
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The evidence shows that (stauros) means an upright pole or stake. Even if for arguments sake we say that jesus died on a cross that would not justify using it in Christianity as it was a pagan symbol that came from Babylon and was used in worship by the Egyptians and romans before Christ walked the earth. If Christ wanted it to be an object of veneration why was it not written about in the gospel. In contrast the bible prohibits idolatry ex 20:4. The cross was adopted centuries after Christ and his apostles into apostate Christendom to appease the pagans.
2013-12-06 17:12:27
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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In response to the comment that Jehovahs witnesses are not Christians is an untrue statement. The word Chistian means to be Christ-like! The very reason we go house to house and door to door preaching and teaching the good news of Gods kingdom is because that is what Jesus sent out his disciples to do when he was on earth! And he himself set the example for us. Also, his very last command to us before leaving this earth was to go therefore and make disciples of peoples of all the nations, preaching and teaching all the things he has commanded and baptizing them and he would be with us all the way til the conclusion of this system of things. Well, today, Jehovahs Witnesses find themselves in way over 200 lands and islands of the sea, translating literature in more than 800 languages all free of charge. (The Readers Digest, with 23 languages, runs a not even close second in the world!)We are over 8 million strong and growing In fact, in the US alone a very famous woman newscaster s comments, who s name has left me at the moment, can be watched on YouTube. Whereas most so-called Christian religions are on the decline, She states that we are the fastest growing "Christian" yes,Christian, religion in the United States. As the Bible says, "A rotten tree cannot produce fine fruit." Certainly the result, or "fruitage", speaks for itself. God is truly blessing the work that we are doing!! Also, if you look up the word cult, it is a religion that follows a man. Presidents have come and gone but We continue follow our one Lord and Savior, Jesus Christ and the very kind of work we are known for the whole world over is a testimony to that fact! Have a good day and thank you for listening!
2016-02-21 19:53:27
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answer #8
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answered by Sandra 1
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This Site Might Help You.
RE:
Why do many Bibles say "cross" when the original Greek word literally means "tree"?
Since the Greek word (stauros) that is translated as "cross" literally means "tree" or "pole" (see Acts 5:30) why do most Bibles render this word as 'cross'? Is it likely that the cross, which was in use centuries before Christianity (see crux ansata), is a...
2015-08-06 16:06:17
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Jehovah s Witness have done their research and have according to the translation of stauros, is an upright stake. Why can t other people do their research and see that it is an upright pole? It is so simple. It is not a cross that Jesus died and why would a person wear a cross that they think someone died on?
If your child died in a car crash would you want to wear a symbol of that car around you neck or hanging in your house?.
2015-10-25 14:00:52
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answer #10
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answered by ? 1
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