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"Everyone will die for his own sin" (Jeremiah 31:30). "The soul who sins is the one who will die." (Ezekiel 18:4,20).

“The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, neither shall the children be put to death for the fathers: every man shall be put to death for his own sin.” (Deuteronomy 24:16)


and my one more qsution what will happen to those who where here before jesus

2007-11-21 14:03:29 · 19 answers · asked by ag a 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

19 answers

My grandfather did it (or: Is King David going to Hell?):


"A bastard shall not enter into the congregation of the LORD; even to his tenth generation shall he not enter into the congregation of the LORD."

Deuteronomy 23:2

If we look at the genealogy of David the king (pbuh) we find:

"The book of the generation of Jesus Christ, the son of David, the son of Abraham. Abraham begat Isaac; and Isaac begat Jacob; and Jacob begat Judas and his brethren; And Judas begat Phares and Zara of Thamar; and (1)Phares begat (2)Esrom; and Esrom begat (3)Aram; And Aram begat (4)Aminadab; and Aminadab begat (5)Naasson; and Naasson begat (6)Salmon; And Salmon begat (7)Booz of Rachab; and Booz begat (8)Obed of Ruth; and Obed begat (9)Jesse; And Jesse begat (10)David the king"

Matthew 1:1-6

Who is Phares, the son of Judas? Let us ask the Bible:

"And it came to pass about three months after, that it was told Judah, saying, Tamar thy daughter in law hath played the harlot; and also, behold, she is with child by whoredom. And Judah said, Bring her forth, and let her be burnt. When she was brought forth, she sent to her father in law, saying, By the man, whose these are, am I with child: and she said, Discern, I pray thee, whose are these, the signet, and bracelets, and staff. And Judah acknowledged them, and said, She hath been more righteous than I; because that I gave her not to Shelah my son. And he knew her again no more. And it came to pass in the time of her travail, that, behold, twins were in her womb. And it came to pass, as he drew back his hand, that, behold, his brother came out: and she said, How hast thou broken forth? this breach be upon thee: therefore his name was called Pharez."

Genesis 38:24-28

2007-11-21 14:16:17 · answer #1 · answered by alee 3 · 0 1

The Bible can be divided into statements of Law and Gospel. The Law (amoung other things) shows us our sin and need for a Savior. It shows us that we are incapable of meetings Gods requirements. The Gospel shows us that though we sin, we have a Savior that "took the rap" for our sins, though he was sinless. The Gospel always wins out over the Law.
1 John 1:8-9>>If we say that we have no sin we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive our sins and cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
Those passages show that we are sinful and deserve condemnation. And, we all will die due to the fall (sin of Adam and Eve), and our own sins. We inherit the sinful nature.

Romans 310 says "There is no one righteous, not even one."

That puts us in a terrible situation, in which we deserve eternal damnation. But a way out is provided.

Rom. 3:21-24 says: But now a righteous from God, apart from law, has been made know, to which the law and the prophets testify. This righteous from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference, for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus.

For the original sin thing and what Adam did compared to what Jesus did, see Roman 5:12 and following verses.

Good question about the people before Jesus!
They believed in the messiah yet to come, just as Christians believe in the Messiah that came.
David was promised the messiah would be from his family line. Isaiah 7: 14>>Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign, Behold, a virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel (meaning God with us).
There are numerous messianic profecies available (see online) but you may want to look at ISaiah 53, and ask yourself who this suffering servant yet to come may be. Psalm 22 gives a good depiction of crucifiction, even though it didn't exist during the time of the psalms writing.

The Protoevangelium (to learn more, do a search for it) is contained in Genesis 3:15. In it God promises a Savior to Adam and Eve (and the world). The serpant, Satan, would bruise the heel of the offspring of a woman, but the Savior would crush the head of Satan. Jesus did this by his attonement on the cross and resurrection, and will exercise the full spoils of his victory on the final day.

2007-11-21 14:52:09 · answer #2 · answered by Dr. Paul 4 · 0 0

The Bible was written by men long after Jesus' death. Evidence has been found that confirms that He lived but the Bible has been written after a long time and many, many translations from obscure and extinct languages. If you get a chance take a look at the relics of the Dead Sea Scrolls and figure out how any entire statements could be translated from the fragments and scraps that have been found, One of the first English translations of Bible scripts was carried out by the Venerable Bede approximately seven hundred years after the Crucifixion. The subject is too complex and convoluted for me to document the full story but you can get the gist of it, do some research.however, it is very unlikely that the Bible contains anything that directly came from Jesus, what is reported is what men THINK that MAYBE He said.

2007-11-21 14:24:59 · answer #3 · answered by professor 3 · 0 1

It is in the prophecy that Jesus will ssuffer and be crucified to save us from our sins.
Do you mean to say that when you were save from your previous sin, you will not sin anymore? Any man is inclined to commit a sin while still living.
And when your sins will be forgiven, do you mean to say that you will live forever with God> It is only God who has no beginning and no ending. All humans will die as well as all living things. Nobody of us is permanent in this world of sins.
jtm

2007-11-21 14:16:26 · answer #4 · answered by Jesus M 7 · 0 0

We do die for our own sins. But when Adam sinned he passed that on to his children. He couldn't give us something he didn't have eternal life.
So Jesus bought back mankind with a perfect life, what Adam lost so we don't die anymore from inherited sin from Adam. So all of Adam's children are covered by the death of Jesus.
However, being released from Adam's sin does not release us from our own sin. By doing this we do not die for the sin's of our father Adam.

2007-11-21 14:10:18 · answer #5 · answered by Ruth 6 · 0 2

There was a mentality in the ancient world that if one person sins you kill not only him but his whole family.

God was saying that for an earthly penalty you only punish the person who sinned not his whole family.

This where understanding the context of the times is important.

Pastor Art

2007-11-21 23:56:13 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

You have to watch for the context... The idea of Jesus dying for our sins is found only in the new testament! There are no contradictions in the Bible... You need to learn about the whimsical will of God... Jesus DIDN'T WANT TO DIE FOR ANYBODY!!!

Hebrews 5:7-8 (NIV) During the days of Jesus' life on earth* (*all along) , he offered up prayers and petitions with loud cries and tears to the one who could save him from death, and he was heard because of his reverent submission. Although he was a son, he learned obedience from what he suffered

So you see Jesus was really scared to die. Good thing that Saint Paul came along later on and finished whatever pain Jesus still had to suffer in his flesh...

Colossians 1:24 (NIV) Now I rejoice in what was suffered for you, and I fill up in my flesh what is still lacking in regard to Christ's afflictions, for the sake of his body, which is the church.

And that is why God rewarded Saint Paul with the "STIGMATTA". He was the first Christian to get it.

Galatians 6:17 (NIV) Finally, let no one cause me trouble, for I bear on my body the marks of Jesus.

2007-11-21 14:12:48 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

Jesus did not die for any ones sins. This is just religious nonsense.

The only way this could be true was if God was some kind of an idiot.

Love and blessings Don

2007-11-21 14:08:53 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

Jesus came so that we can be forgiven...all we have to do is accept the free gift of salvation. As far as those who died before Jesus they were given the opportunity to accept Him or reject Him during those three days that His body was in the tomb.

2007-11-21 14:18:09 · answer #9 · answered by cbmultiplechoice 5 · 0 1

Every man will die for his own sin if he doesn't accept that Jesus stood in his place and paid his debt in full. Those who lived before Jesus and lived righteously did not go to hell. They went to a temporary place called Paradise.

2007-11-21 14:08:24 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

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