In response to one of my questions I got this response "I do NOT question infallible councils. If I DID, then I would have to question the New Testament canon". I am not sure why someone would believe this. The NT canon was determined at the synods of hippo and carthage. Neither of which were ecumenical and thus neither of which had the charism of infallibility. So the NT canon was accepted for over a millenium with no need for claims of infallibility. The men at these synods never claimed infallibility and yet most accepted the canon they proposed. In fact the first time scripture was infallibly declared was at the council of trent in the 16th century. So why does rejecting the idea of infallibility have any bearing on accepting scripture? The only correlation I can see is if you do not believe God could preserve his Word through fallible man.
2007-11-21
09:25:13
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